A Boring Question
Time Limit: 2000/1000 MS (Java/Others) Memory Limit: 65536/65536 K (Java/Others)Total Submission(s): 869 Accepted Submission(s): 538
Problem Description
There are an equation.
∑0≤k1,k2,⋯km≤n∏1⩽j<m(kj+1kj)%1000000007=?
We define that (kj+1kj)=kj+1!kj!(kj+1−kj)! . And (kj+1kj)=0 while kj+1<kj .
You have to get the answer for each n and m that given to you.
For example,if n=1 , m=3 ,
When k1=0,k2=0,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=0,k2=1,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=0,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=1,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=0,k2=0,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=0,k2=1,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=1,k2=0,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=1,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 .
So the answer is 4.
∑0≤k1,k2,⋯km≤n∏1⩽j<m(kj+1kj)%1000000007=?
We define that (kj+1kj)=kj+1!kj!(kj+1−kj)! . And (kj+1kj)=0 while kj+1<kj .
You have to get the answer for each n and m that given to you.
For example,if n=1 , m=3 ,
When k1=0,k2=0,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=0,k2=1,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=0,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=1,k3=0,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=0,k2=0,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=0,k2=1,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 ;
When k1=1,k2=0,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=0 ;
When k1=1,k2=1,k3=1,(k2k1)(k3k2)=1 .
So the answer is 4.
Input
The first line of the input contains the only integer
T
,
(1≤T≤10000)
Then T lines follow,the i-th line contains two integers n , m , (0≤n≤109,2≤m≤109)
Then T lines follow,the i-th line contains two integers n , m , (0≤n≤109,2≤m≤109)
Output
For each
n
and
m
,output the answer in a single line.
Sample Input
2 1 2 2 3
Sample Output
3 13
Author
UESTC
Source
2016 Multi-University Training Contest 6
题意(对于只学了大一高数的来说,有好多知识要补):
∏ 是连续积的意思。 a≡b mod(p) 就是a b两数对于%p都有相同的数。也可以理解为(a-b)%p==0
point:
先打表找规律,得知答案为 ans=(pow(m,n+1)-1)/(m-1) mod 1000000007
我觉得这已经很难了,因为pow(n,n+1)太大,结果他还要求乘法逆元 + 费马小定理。
乘法逆元:
满足 b * k ≡ 1 (mod p) 的 k 的值就是 b 关于 p 的乘法逆元。 我们可以通过求 b 关于 p 的乘法逆元 k,将 a 乘上 k 再模 p,即 (a * k) mod p。其结果与(a / b) mod p等价
费马小原理:
对于任意整数a 、p , p为素数 , gcd(a,p) = 1 , 则 a^(p-1) ≡ 1 (mod p)
综上,使a=pow(m,n+1)-1,b=m-1。
b*b^(p-2)≡ 1 (mod p) 即逆元k=b^(p-2),即(a / b) mod p等价于(a * b^(p-2)) mod p。再利用快速幂就行。
打表代码:
#include<iostream>
#include<cstring>
#include<cstdio>
using namespace std;
int n,m,ans;
int c[7][7];
int a[7];
int aans=0;
void dfs(int cnt,int now)
{
if(cnt==m+1)
{
ans=1;
for(int i=1;i<m;i++)
{
ans*=c[a[i+1]][a[i]];
}
aans+=ans;
return;
}
for(int i=now;i<=n;i++)
{
a[cnt]=i;
dfs(cnt+1,i);
}
}
int main()
{
int k[7];
k[0]=1;
for(int i=1;i<=6;i++)
{
k[i]=k[i-1]*i;
}
for(int i=0;i<=6;i++)
{
for(int j=0;j<=i;j++)
{
c[i][j]=k[i]/(k[j]*k[i-j]);
// printf("%d %d %d\n",i,j,c[i][j]);
}
}
for(int j=2;j<=5;j++)
{
for(int i=0;i<=5;i++)
{
aans=0;
n=i,m=j;
dfs(1,0);
printf("%d %d %d\n",i,j,aans);
}
}
}
ans=(pow(m,n+1)-1)/(m-1) mod 1000000007
ac代码:
#include<iostream>
#include<cstring>
#include<cstdio>
using namespace std;
#define ll long long
const ll p = 1000000007;
ll qkm(ll base,ll mi)
{
ll ans=1;
while(mi)
{
if(mi%2==1)
ans*=base;
base*=base,base=base%p;
mi=mi/2;
ans=ans%p;
}
return ans%p;
}
int main()
{
int T;
scanf("%d",&T);
while(T--)
{
ll n,m;
scanf("%lld %lld",&n,&m);
ll a= qkm(m,n+1)-1;
ll b= m-1;
ll ans=a*qkm(b,p-2)%p;
printf("%lld\n",ans);
}
}