6.2 (45)
Proof:
W
(
t
)
′
=
π
(
(
f
−
1
(
f
(
t
)
)
)
2
−
a
2
)
f
′
(
t
)
=
π
(
t
2
−
a
2
)
f
′
(
t
)
W'_{(t)}=\pi( (f^{-1}(f(t)))^2 - a^2)f'(t)=\pi(t^2-a^2)f'(t)
W(t)′=π((f−1(f(t)))2−a2)f′(t)=π(t2−a2)f′(t)
S
(
t
)
=
2
π
f
(
t
)
∫
a
t
x
d
x
−
2
π
∫
a
t
x
f
(
x
)
d
x
=
π
f
(
t
)
[
x
2
]
a
t
−
2
π
∫
a
t
x
f
(
x
)
d
x
=
π
f
(
t
)
t
2
−
π
f
(
t
)
a
2
−
2
π
∫
a
t
x
f
(
x
)
d
x
S_{(t)}=2\pi f(t)\int^t_a{x}{\rm d}x -2\pi\int^t_axf(x){\rm d}x = \pi f(t)[x^2]^t_a - 2\pi\int^t_axf(x){\rm d}x=\pi f(t)t^2-\pi f(t)a^2- 2\pi\int^t_axf(x){\rm d}x
S(t)=2πf(t)∫atxdx−2π∫atxf(x)dx=πf(t)[x2]at−2π∫atxf(x)dx=πf(t)t2−πf(t)a2−2π∫atxf(x)dx
==>
S
(
t
)
′
=
π
f
′
(
t
)
t
2
+
2
π
t
f
(
t
)
−
π
a
2
f
′
(
t
)
−
2
π
t
f
(
t
)
=
π
(
t
2
−
a
2
)
f
′
(
t
)
S'_{(t)}=\pi f'(t)t^2+2\pi tf(t) - \pi a^2f'(t)-2\pi tf(t)=\pi(t^2-a^2)f'(t)
S(t)′=πf′(t)t2+2πtf(t)−πa2f′(t)−2πtf(t)=π(t2−a2)f′(t)
==>
W
(
t
)
′
=
S
(
t
)
′
W'_{(t)}=S'_{(t)}
W(t)′=S(t)′ .
W ( a ) = S ( a ) = 0 W(a)=S(a)=0 W(a)=S(a)=0
Therefore, W ( t ) = S ( t ) W(t)=S(t) W(t)=S(t) for all t [a, b].
I found another washer method which can be proof been equivalent to the above two methods.
W ( t ) = ∫ f ( a ) f ( t ) π ( x 2 − a 2 ) d y W(t)=\int^{f(t)}_{f(a)}\pi (x^2-a^2){\rm d}y W(t)=∫f(a)f(t)π(x2−a2)dy
y
=
f
(
x
)
y=f(x)
y=f(x) =>
d
y
=
f
′
(
x
)
d
x
dy=f'(x)dx
dy=f′(x)dx
=>
W
(
t
)
=
=
∫
a
t
π
(
x
2
−
a
2
)
f
′
(
x
)
d
x
W(t)==\int^t_a\pi (x^2-a^2)f'(x){\rm d}x
W(t)==∫atπ(x2−a2)f′(x)dx
=>
W
(
t
)
′
=
π
(
t
2
−
a
2
)
f
′
(
t
)
W'_{(t)}=\pi(t^2-a^2)f'(t)
W(t)′=π(t2−a2)f′(t)
7.2 - 32
Solution:
d y d t = r − k y \frac{dy}{dt}=r-ky dtdy=r−ky => 1 r − k y d y = d t \frac{1}{r-ky}dy=dt r−ky1dy=dt=> ∫ 1 r − k y d y = ∫ d t \int{\frac{1}{r-ky}}{\rm d}y=\int{\rm d}t ∫r−ky1dy=∫dt => 1 k l n ( r − k y ) = t + C \frac{1}{k}ln(r-ky)=t+C k1ln(r−ky)=t+C => y = 1 k ( r − c e − k t ) y=\frac{1}{k}(r-ce^{-kt}) y=k1(r−ce−kt)
Alternatively:
Let z = r − k y z=r-ky z=r−ky. Then d z d t = − k d y d t = − k ( r − k y ) = − k z \frac{dz}{dt}=-k\frac{dy}{dt}=-k(r-ky)=-kz dtdz=−kdtdy=−k(r−ky)=−kz. The equation d z d t = − k z \frac{dz}{dt}=-kz dtdz=−kz has solution z = c e − k t z=ce^{-kt} z=ce−kt, so r − k y = c e − k t r-ky=ce^{-kt} r−ky=ce−kt and y = 1 k ( r − c e − k t ) y=\frac{1}{k}(r-ce^{-kt}) y=k1(r−ce−kt)
Since
y
(
0
)
=
1
k
(
r
−
c
)
=
y
0
y(0)=\frac{1}{k}(r-c)=y_0
y(0)=k1(r−c)=y0 , we have
c
=
r
−
k
y
0
c=r-ky_0
c=r−ky0 and thus
y
=
(
y
0
−
r
k
)
e
−
k
t
+
r
k
y=(y_0-\frac{r}{k})e^{-kt}+\frac{r}{k}
y=(y0−kr)e−kt+kr
8-Advance Exercises
9.2
9-ad
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