一 原题
For an array bb of length mm we define the function ff as
where ⊕⊕ is bitwise exclusive OR.
For example, f(1,2,4,8)=f(1⊕2,2⊕4,4⊕8)=f(3,6,12)=f(3⊕6,6⊕12)=f(5,10)=f(5⊕10)=f(15)=15f(1,2,4,8)=f(1⊕2,2⊕4,4⊕8)=f(3,6,12)=f(3⊕6,6⊕12)=f(5,10)=f(5⊕10)=f(15)=15
You are given an array aa and a few queries. Each query is represented as two integers ll and rr. The answer is the maximum value of ff on all continuous subsegments of the array al,al+1,…,aral,al+1,…,ar.
The first line contains a single integer nn (1≤n≤50001≤n≤5000) — the length of aa.
The second line contains nn integers a1,a2,…,ana1,a2,…,an (0≤ai≤230−10≤ai≤230−1) — the elements of the array.
The third line contains a single integer qq (1≤q≤1000001≤q≤100000) — the number of queries.
Each of the next qq lines contains a query represented as two integers ll, rr (1≤l≤r≤n1≤l≤r≤n).
Print qq lines — the answers for the queries.
3 8 4 1 2 2 3 1 2
5 12
6 1 2 4 8 16 32 4 1 6 2 5 3 4 1 2
60 30 12 3
In first sample in both queries the maximum value of the function is reached on the subsegment that is equal to the whole segment.
In second sample, optimal segment for first query are [3,6][3,6], for second query — [2,5][2,5], for third — [3,4][3,4], for fourth — [1,2][1,2].
二 分析
挺有意思的一道题。题目给了一个递归定义的函数f,每次f的求值会使参数个数减1,因此可以画出一个类似杨辉三角一样的图。定义F(i,j)=f(ai,ai+1,...,aj),看看图如果能发现F(i,j)=F(i+1,j)^F(i,j-1),问题就是一个简单DP了。
三 代码
#include <cstdio>
// #define local
typedef long long LL;
const int maxn = 5005;
int n, q, l, r;
LL a[maxn], f[maxn][maxn], ans[maxn][maxn];
LL max(LL x, LL y) { return (x > y)? x: y; }
int main() {
#ifdef local
freopen("input.txt", "r", stdin);
#endif
scanf("%d", &n);
for (int i = 1; i <= n; i++) {
scanf("%lld", &a[i]);
f[i][i] = ans[i][i] = a[i];
}
for (int i = 1; i < n; i++) {
for (int j = 1; i + j <= n; j++) {
f[j][i + j] = f[j + 1][i + j] ^ f[j][i + j - 1];
ans[j][i + j] = max(f[j][i + j],
max(ans[j + 1][i + j],
ans[j][i + j - 1]));
}
}
scanf("%d", &q);
while (q--) {
scanf("%d%d", &l, &r);
printf("%lld\n", ans[l][r]);
}
return 0;
}