【Codeforces Round 340 (Div 2)B】【简单题】Chocolate 巧克力划分方案数 每段恰有一个坚果

B. Chocolate
time limit per test
1 second
memory limit per test
256 megabytes
input
standard input
output
standard output

Bob loves everything sweet. His favorite chocolate bar consists of pieces, each piece may contain a nut. Bob wants to break the bar of chocolate into multiple pieces so that each part would contain exactly one nut and any break line goes between two adjacent pieces.

You are asked to calculate the number of ways he can do it. Two ways to break chocolate are considered distinct if one of them contains a break between some two adjacent pieces and the other one doesn't.

Please note, that if Bob doesn't make any breaks, all the bar will form one piece and it still has to have exactly one nut.

Input

The first line of the input contains integer n (1 ≤ n ≤ 100) — the number of pieces in the chocolate bar.

The second line contains n integers ai (0 ≤ ai ≤ 1), where 0 represents a piece without the nut and 1 stands for a piece with the nut.

Output

Print the number of ways to break the chocolate into multiple parts so that each part would contain exactly one nut.

Examples
input
3
0 1 0
output
1
input
5
1 0 1 0 1
output
4
Note

In the first sample there is exactly one nut, so the number of ways equals 1 — Bob shouldn't make any breaks.

In the second sample you can break the bar in four ways:

10|10|1

1|010|1

10|1|01

1|01|01

#include<stdio.h>
#include<iostream>
#include<string.h>
#include<string>
#include<ctype.h>
#include<math.h>
#include<set>
#include<map>
#include<vector>
#include<queue>
#include<bitset>
#include<algorithm>
#include<time.h>
using namespace std;
void fre() { freopen("c://test//input.in", "r", stdin); freopen("c://test//output.out", "w", stdout); }
#define MS(x,y) memset(x,y,sizeof(x))
#define MC(x,y) memcpy(x,y,sizeof(x))
#define MP(x,y) make_pair(x,y)
#define ls o<<1
#define rs o<<1|1
typedef long long LL;
typedef unsigned long long UL;
typedef unsigned int UI;
template <class T1, class T2>inline void gmax(T1 &a, T2 b) { if (b>a)a = b; }
template <class T1, class T2>inline void gmin(T1 &a, T2 b) { if (b<a)a = b; }
const int N = 0, M = 0, Z = 1e9 + 7, ms63 = 0x3f3f3f3f;
int n;
int x;
int b[105];
int main()
{
	while (~scanf("%d", &n))
	{
		int m = 0;
		for (int i = 1; i <= n; ++i)
		{
			scanf("%d", &x);
			if (x == 1)b[++m] = i;
		}
		if (m == 0)puts("0");
		else
		{
			LL ans = 1;
			for (int i = 1; i < m; ++i)
			{
				ans = ans*(b[i + 1] - b[i]);
			}
			printf("%lld\n", ans);
		}
	}
	return 0;
}
/*
【trick&&吐槽】
1,这题最坏情况下,ans可达2^48*3,会爆int。
2,还是需要考虑没有1这种无法划分的特殊情况。

【题意】
有n(1<=n<=100)个数,每个数不是0,就是1.
我们要把这些数划分成若干区间段。使得每个区间段恰好都有且仅有一个1
问你划分的方案数

【类型】
简单题

【分析】
显然,有多少个1,我们就必然要划分成多少段。
然后,两个相邻1之间有w个0,我们的划分方案数就是w+1
于是,我们记录所有1的位置,对于任意一对相邻的1,答案乘上b[i+1]-b[i]
然后就AC啦

【时间复杂度&&优化】
O(n)

*/



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