leetCode#338.Counting Bits

Description

Given a non negative integer number num. For every numbers i in the range 0 ≤ i ≤ num calculate the number of 1’s in their binary representation and return them as an array.

Example:
For num = 5 you should return [0,1,1,2,1,2].

Follow up:

It is very easy to come up with a solution with run time O(n*sizeof(integer)). But can you do it in linear time O(n) /possibly in a single pass?
Space complexity should be O(n).
Can you do it like a boss? Do it without using any builtin function like __builtin_popcount in c++ or in any other language.

Code

class Solution {
public:
    vector<int> countBits(int num) {
        vector<int> res;
        res.push_back(0);
        int cnt = 1, i = 1;
        while(i <= cnt && i <= num){
            if(i == cnt){
                res.push_back(1);
                cnt *= 2;
            }
            else
                res.push_back(1 + res[i % (cnt / 2)]);
            i++;
        }
        return res;
    }
};

上面是第一次提交的代码，下面的是看了讨论区，别人的代码，只能说666.
记录下来，以备以后使用

class Solution {
public:
    vector<int> countBits(int num) {
        vector<int> res;
        res.push_back(0);
        for(int i = 1; i <= num; i++)
            res.push_back(res[i&(i - 1)] + 1);
        return res;
    }
};

Conlution

这道题的思路其实是这样：
用f(x)表示x的二进制1的个数，则比如f(9) = f(8) + f(9%8)，则f(11) = f(8) + f(11%8)，由于在2的指数倍上f(2^x) = 1，所以上述公式中f(8)直接改为1.在我之前的代码中，cnt表示下次的2的指数倍，所以表达式为f(11%(16 / 2))。在后面的公式中，其实是另一种思路，n&(n - 1)表示的是去掉n的最右边的第一个1，由于f(n&(n - 1))已算出来，所以只要加1就可以算出f(n)