Component name “index“ should always bemulti-word.组件名称“index”应该总是由多个单词组成

问题:运行vue2时,发现以下报错

 原因:先查看脚手架的版本  npm list vue -g

            发现我们的脚手架版本是 5 版本

 解决:在我们脚手架5版本中,.vue结尾的组件文件命名必须是以驼峰命名来创建文件的。

 解决方法一:见文件名改成驼峰命名的文件

解决方法二: 可以在vue.config.js中将eslin的验证关掉,就是增加以下一行代码即可。

注意:在vue3版本中,vue.config.js文件是自动生成的

 

试着写写看吧~~~~~~

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Version 1.7 ----------- - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder 10.2 Tokyo now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder 10.1 Berlin now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder 10 Seattle now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE8 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE7 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE6 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE5 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE4 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE3 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE2 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder XE now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder 2010 now supported. - ADD: Delphi/CBuilder 2009 now supported. - ADD: New demo project FlexCADImport. - FIX: The height of the TFlexRegularPolygon object incorrectly changes with its rotation. - FIX: Added division by zero protect in method TFlexControl.MovePathSegment. - FIX: The background beyond docuemnt wasn't filled when TFlexPanel.DocClipping=True. - FIX: In "Windows ClearType" font rendering mode (OS Windows mode) the "garbage" pixels can appear from the right and from the bottom sides of the painted rectangle of the TFlexText object. - FIX: The result rectangle incorrectly calculated in the TFlexText.GetRefreshRect method. - FIX: Added FPaintCache.rcPaint cleanup in the TFlexPanel.WMPaint method. Now it is possible to define is the drawing take place via WMPaint or via the PaintTo direct call (if rcPaint contain non-empty rectangle then WMPaint in progress). - FIX: The TFlexPanel.FPaintCache field moved in the protected class section. Added rcPaint field in FPaintCache that represents drawing rectangle. - ADD: In the text prcise mode (TFlexText.Precise=True) takes into account the rotation angle (TFlexText.Angle). - FIX: Removed FG_NEWTEXTROTATE directive (the TFlexText Precise mode should be used instead). - FIX: The TFlexRegularPolygon object clones incorrectly drawed in case when TFlexRegularPolygon have alternative brush (gradient, texture). - ADD: Add TFlexPanel.InvalidateControl virtual method which calls from TFle
Git-2.21.0-64 for windows Git 2.23 Release Notes ====================== Updates since v2.22 ------------------- Backward compatibility note * The "--base" option of "format-patch" computed the patch-ids for prerequisite patches in an unstable way, which has been updated to compute in a way that is compatible with "git patch-id --stable". * The "git log" command by default behaves as if the --mailmap option was given. UI, Workflows & Features * The "git fast-export/import" pair has been taught to handle commits with log messages in encoding other than UTF-8 better. * In recent versions of Git, per-worktree refs are exposed in refs/worktrees/<wtname>/ hierarchy, which means that worktree names must be a valid refname component. The code now sanitizes the names given to worktrees, to make sure these refs are well-formed. * "git merge" learned "--quit" option that cleans up the in-progress merge while leaving the working tree and the index still in a mess. * "git format-patch" learns a configuration to set the default for its --notes=<ref> option. * The code to show args with potential typo that cannot be interpreted as a commit-ish has been improved. * "git clone --recurse-submodules" learned to set up the submodules to ignore commit object names recorded in the superproject gitlink and instead use the commits that happen to be at the tip of the remote-tracking branches from the get-go, by passing the new "--remote-submodules" option. * The pattern "git diff/grep" use to extract funcname and words boundary for Matlab has been extend to cover Octave, which is more or less equivalent. * "git help git" was hard to discover (well, at least for some people). * The pattern "git diff/grep" use to extract funcname and words boundary for Rust has been added. * "git status" can be told a non-standard default value for the "--[no-]ahead-behind" option with a new configuration variable status.aheadBehind. * "git fetch" and "git pull" reports when a fetch results in non-fast-forward updates to let the user notice unusual situation. The commands learned "--no-show-forced-updates" option to disable this safety feature. * Two new commands "git switch" and "git restore" are introduced to split "checking out a branch to work on advancing its history" and "checking out paths out of the index and/or a tree-ish to work on advancing the current history" out of the single "git checkout" command. * "git branch --list" learned to always output the detached HEAD as the first item (when the HEAD is detached, of course), regardless of the locale. * The conditional inclusion mechanism learned to base the choice on the branch the HEAD currently is on. * "git rev-list --objects" learned the "--no-object-names" option to squelch the path to the object that is used as a grouping hint for pack-objects. * A new tag.gpgSign configuration variable turns "git tag -a" into "git tag -s". * "git multi-pack-index" learned expire and repack subcommands. * "git blame" learned to "ignore" commits in the history, whose effects (as well as their presence) get ignored. * "git cherry-pick/revert" learned a new "--skip" action. * The tips of refs from the alternate object store can be used as starting point for reachability computation now. * Extra blank lines in "git status" output have been reduced. * The commits in a repository can be described by multiple commit-graph files now, which allows the commit-graph files to be updated incrementally. * "git range-diff" output has been tweaked for easier identification of which part of what file the patch shown is about. Performance, Internal Implementation, Development Support etc. * Update supporting parts of "git rebase" to remove code that should no longer be used. * Developer support to emulate unsatisfied prerequisites in tests to ensure that the remainder of the tests still succeeds when tests with prerequisites are skipped. * "git update-server-info" learned not to rewrite the file with the same contents. * The way of specifying the path to find dynamic libraries at runtime has been simplified. The old default to pass -R/path/to/dir has been replaced with the new default to pass -Wl,-rpath,/path/to/dir, which is the more recent GCC uses. Those who need to build with an old GCC can still use "CC_LD_DYNPATH=-R" * Prepare use of reachability index in topological walker that works on a range (A..B). * A new tutorial targeting specifically aspiring git-core developers has been added. * Auto-detect how to tell HP-UX aCC where to use dynamically linked libraries from at runtime. * "git mergetool" and its tests now spawn fewer subprocesses. * Dev support update to help tracing out tests. * Support to build with MSVC has been updated. * "git fetch" that grabs from a group of remotes learned to run the auto-gc only once at the very end. * A handful of Windows build patches have been upstreamed. * The code to read state files used by the sequencer machinery for "git status" has been made more robust against a corrupt or stale state files. * "git for-each-ref" with multiple patterns have been optimized. * The tree-walk API learned to pass an in-core repository instance throughout more codepaths. * When one step in multi step cherry-pick or revert is reset or committed, the command line prompt script failed to notice the current status, which has been improved. * Many GIT_TEST_* environment variables control various aspects of how our tests are run, but a few followed "non-empty is true, empty or unset is false" while others followed the usual "there are a few ways to spell true, like yes, on, etc., and also ways to spell false, like no, off, etc." convention. * Adjust the dir-iterator API and apply it to the local clone optimization codepath. * We have been trying out a few language features outside c89; the coding guidelines document did not talk about them and instead had a blanket ban against them. * A test helper has been introduced to optimize preparation of test repositories with many simple commits, and a handful of test scripts have been updated to use it. Fixes since v2.22 ----------------- * A relative pathname given to "git init --template=<path> <repo>" ought to be relative to the directory "git init" gets invoked in, but it instead was made relative to the repository, which has been corrected. * "git worktree add" used to fail when another worktree connected to the same repository was corrupt, which has been corrected. * The ownership rule for the file descriptor to fast-import remote backend was mixed up, leading to an unrelated file descriptor getting closed, which has been fixed. * A "merge -c" instruction during "git rebase --rebase-merges" should give the user a chance to edit the log message, even when there is otherwise no need to create a new merge and replace the existing one (i.e. fast-forward instead), but did not. Which has been corrected. * Code cleanup and futureproof. * More parameter validation. * "git update-server-info" used to leave stale packfiles in its output, which has been corrected. * The server side support for "git fetch" used to show incorrect value for the HEAD symbolic ref when the namespace feature is in use, which has been corrected. * "git am -i --resolved" segfaulted after trying to see a commit as if it were a tree, which has been corrected. * "git bundle verify" needs to see if prerequisite objects exist in the receiving repository, but the command did not check if we are in a repository upfront, which has been corrected. * "git merge --squash" is designed to update the working tree and the index without creating the commit, and this cannot be countermanded by adding the "--commit" option; the command now refuses to work when both options are given. * The data collected by fsmonitor was not properly written back to the on-disk index file, breaking t7519 tests occasionally, which has been corrected. * Update to Unicode 12.1 width table. * The command line to invoke a "git cat-file" command from inside "git p4" was not properly quoted to protect a caret and running a broken command on Windows, which has been corrected. * "git request-pull" learned to warn when the ref we ask them to pull from in the local repository and in the published repository are different. * When creating a partial clone, the object filtering criteria is recorded for the origin of the clone, but this incorrectly used a hardcoded name "origin" to name that remote; it has been corrected to honor the "--origin <name>" option. * "git fetch" into a lazy clone forgot to fetch base objects that are necessary to complete delta in a thin packfile, which has been corrected. * The filter_data used in the list-objects-filter (which manages a lazily sparse clone repository) did not use the dynamic array API correctly---'nr' is supposed to point at one past the last element of the array in use. This has been corrected. * The description about slashes in gitignore patterns (used to indicate things like "anchored to this level only" and "only matches directories") has been revamped. * The URL decoding code has been updated to avoid going past the end of the string while parsing %-<hex>-<hex> sequence. * The list of for-each like macros used by clang-format has been updated. * "git branch --list" learned to show branches that are checked out in other worktrees connected to the same repository prefixed with '+', similar to the way the currently checked out branch is shown with '*' in front. (merge 6e9381469e nb/branch-show-other-worktrees-head later to maint). * Code restructuring during 2.20 period broke fetching tags via "import" based transports. * The commit-graph file is now part of the "files that the runtime may keep open file descriptors on, all of which would need to be closed when done with the object store", and the file descriptor to an existing commit-graph file now is closed before "gc" finalizes a new instance to replace it. * "git checkout -p" needs to selectively apply a patch in reverse, which did not work well. * Code clean-up to avoid signed integer wraparounds during binary search. * "git interpret-trailers" always treated '#' as the comment character, regardless of core.commentChar setting, which has been corrected. * "git stash show 23" used to work, but no more after getting rewritten in C; this regression has been corrected. * "git rebase --abort" used to leave refs/rewritten/ when concluding "git rebase -r", which has been corrected. * An incorrect list of options was cached after command line completion failed (e.g. trying to complete a command that requires a repository outside one), which has been corrected. * The code to parse scaled numbers out of configuration files has been made more robust and also easier to follow. * The codepath to compute delta islands used to spew progress output without giving the callers any way to squelch it, which has been fixed. * Protocol capabilities that go over wire should never be translated, but it was incorrectly marked for translation, which has been corrected. The output of protocol capabilities for debugging has been tweaked a bit. * Use "Erase in Line" CSI sequence that is already used in the editor support to clear cruft in the progress output. * "git submodule foreach" did not protect command line options passed to the command to be run in each submodule correctly, when the "--recursive" option was in use. * The configuration variable rebase.rescheduleFailedExec should be effective only while running an interactive rebase and should not affect anything when running a non-interactive one, which was not the case. This has been corrected. * The "git clone" documentation refers to command line options in its description in the short form; they have been replaced with long forms to make them more recognisable. * Generation of pack bitmaps are now disabled when .keep files exist, as these are mutually exclusive features. (merge 7328482253 ew/repack-with-bitmaps-by-default later to maint). * "git rm" to resolve a conflicted path leaked an internal message "needs merge" before actually removing the path, which was confusing. This has been corrected. * "git stash --keep-index" did not work correctly on paths that have been removed, which has been fixed. (merge b932f6a5e8 tg/stash-keep-index-with-removed-paths later to maint). * Window 7 update ;-) * A codepath that reads from GPG for signed object verification read past the end of allocated buffer, which has been fixed. * "git clean" silently skipped a path when it cannot lstat() it; now it gives a warning. * "git push --atomic" that goes over the transport-helper (namely, the smart http transport) failed to prevent refs to be pushed when it can locally tell that one of the ref update will fail without having to consult the other end, which has been corrected. * The internal diff machinery can be made to read out of bounds while looking for --function-context line in a corner case, which has been corrected. (merge b777f3fd61 jk/xdiff-clamp-funcname-context-index later to maint). * Other code cleanup, docfix, build fix, etc. (merge fbec05c210 cc/test-oidmap later to maint). (merge 7a06fb038c jk/no-system-includes-in-dot-c later to maint). (merge 81ed2b405c cb/xdiff-no-system-includes-in-dot-c later to maint). (merge d61e6ce1dd sg/fsck-config-in-doc later to maint).
视频人脸识别,取代jmf。。。 Introduction JavaCV uses wrappers from the JavaCPP Presets of commonly used libraries by researchers in the field of computer vision (OpenCV, FFmpeg, libdc1394, PGR FlyCapture, OpenKinect, librealsense, CL PS3 Eye Driver, videoInput, ARToolKitPlus, and flandmark), and provides utility classes to make their functionality easier to use on the Java platform, including Android. JavaCV also comes with hardware accelerated full-screen image display (CanvasFrame and GLCanvasFrame), easy-to-use methods to execute code in parallel on multiple cores (Parallel), user-friendly geometric and color calibration of cameras and projectors (GeometricCalibrator, ProCamGeometricCalibrator, ProCamColorCalibrator), detection and matching of feature points (ObjectFinder), a set of classes that implement direct image alignment of projector-camera systems (mainly GNImageAligner, ProjectiveTransformer, ProjectiveColorTransformer, ProCamTransformer, and ReflectanceInitializer), a blob analysis package (Blobs), as well as miscellaneous functionality in the JavaCV class. Some of these classes also have an OpenCL and OpenGL counterpart, their names ending with CL or starting with GL, i.e.: JavaCVCL, GLCanvasFrame, etc. To learn how to use the API, since documentation currently lacks, please refer to the Sample Usage section below as well as the sample programs, including two for Android (FacePreview.java and RecordActivity.java), also found in the samples directory. You may also find it useful to refer to the source code of ProCamCalib and ProCamTracker as well as examples ported from OpenCV2 Cookbook and the associated wiki pages. Please keep me informed of any updates or fixes you make to the code so that I may integrate them into the next release. Thank you! And feel free to ask questions on the mailing list if you encounter any problems with the software! I am sure it is far from perfect... Downloads To install manually the JAR files, obtain the following archives and follow the instructions in the Manual Installation section below. JavaCV 1.3.3 binary archive javacv-platform-1.3.3-bin.zip (212 MB) JavaCV 1.3.3 source archive javacv-platform-1.3.3-src.zip (456 KB) The binary archive contains builds for Android, Linux, Mac OS X, and Windows. The JAR files for specific child modules or platforms can also be obtained individually from the Maven Central Repository. We can also have everything downloaded and installed automatically with: Maven (inside the pom.xml file) <dependency> <groupId>org.bytedeco</groupId> <artifactId>javacv-platform</artifactId> <version>1.3.3</version> </dependency> Gradle (inside the build.gradle file) dependencies { compile group: 'org.bytedeco', name: 'javacv-platform', version: '1.3.3' } sbt (inside the build.sbt file) libraryDependencies += "org.bytedeco" % "javacv-platform" % "1.3.3" This downloads binaries for all platforms, but to get binaries for only one platform we can set the javacpp.platform system property (via the -D command line option) to something like android-arm, linux-x86_64, macosx-x86_64, windows-x86_64, etc. Please refer to the README.md file of the JavaCPP Presets for details. Another option available for Scala users is sbt-javacv. Required Software To use JavaCV, you will first need to download and install the following software: An implementation of Java SE 7 or newer: OpenJDK http://openjdk.java.net/install/ or Sun JDK http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/java/javase/downloads/ or IBM JDK http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/java/jdk/ Further, although not always required, some functionality of JavaCV also relies on: CL Eye Platform SDK (Windows only) http://codelaboratories.com/downloads/ Android SDK API 14 or newer http://developer.android.com/sdk/ JOCL and JOGL from JogAmp http://jogamp.org/ Finally, please make sure everything has the same bitness: 32-bit and 64-bit modules do not mix under any circumstances. Manual Installation Simply put all the desired JAR files (opencv*.jar, ffmpeg*.jar, etc.), in addition to javacpp.jar and javacv.jar, somewhere in your class path. Here are some more specific instructions for common cases: NetBeans (Java SE 7 or newer): In the Projects window, right-click the Libraries node of your project, and select "Add JAR/Folder...". Locate the JAR files, select them, and click OK. Eclipse (Java SE 7 or newer): Navigate to Project > Properties > Java Build Path > Libraries and click "Add External JARs...". Locate the JAR files, select them, and click OK. IntelliJ IDEA (Android 4.0 or newer): Follow the instructions on this page: http://developer.android.com/training/basics/firstapp/ Copy all the JAR files into the app/libs subdirectory. Navigate to File > Project Structure > app > Dependencies, click +, and select "2 File dependency". Select all the JAR files from the libs subdirectory. After that, the wrapper classes for OpenCV and FFmpeg, for example, can automatically access all of their C/C++ APIs: OpenCV documentation FFmpeg documentation Sample Usage The class definitions are basically ports to Java of the original header files in C/C++, and I deliberately decided to keep as much of the original syntax as possible. For example, here is a method that tries to load an image file, smooth it, and save it back to disk: import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_core.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_imgproc.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_imgcodecs.*; public class Smoother { public static void smooth(String filename) { IplImage image = cvLoadImage(filename); if (image != null) { cvSmooth(image, image); cvSaveImage(filename, image); cvReleaseImage(image); } } } JavaCV also comes with helper classes and methods on top of OpenCV and FFmpeg to facilitate their integration to the Java platform. Here is a small demo program demonstrating the most frequently useful parts: import java.io.File; import java.net.URL; import org.bytedeco.javacv.*; import org.bytedeco.javacpp.*; import org.bytedeco.javacpp.indexer.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_core.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_imgproc.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_calib3d.*; import static org.bytedeco.javacpp.opencv_objdetect.*; public class Demo { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { String classifierName = null; if (args.length > 0) { classifierName = args[0]; } else { URL url = new URL("https://raw.github.com/Itseez/opencv/2.4.0/data/haarcascades/haarcascade_frontalface_alt.xml"); File file = Loader.extractResource(url, null, "classifier", ".xml"); file.deleteOnExit(); classifierName = file.getAbsolutePath(); } // Preload the opencv_objdetect module to work around a known bug. Loader.load(opencv_objdetect.class); // We can "cast" Pointer objects by instantiating a new object of the desired class. CvHaarClassifierCascade classifier = new CvHaarClassifierCascade(cvLoad(classifierName)); if (classifier.isNull()) { System.err.println("Error loading classifier file \"" + classifierName + "\"."); System.exit(1); } // The available FrameGrabber classes include OpenCVFrameGrabber (opencv_videoio), // DC1394FrameGrabber, FlyCaptureFrameGrabber, OpenKinectFrameGrabber, OpenKinect2FrameGrabber, // RealSenseFrameGrabber, PS3EyeFrameGrabber, VideoInputFrameGrabber, and FFmpegFrameGrabber. FrameGrabber grabber = FrameGrabber.createDefault(0); grabber.start(); // CanvasFrame, FrameGrabber, and FrameRecorder use Frame objects to communicate image data. // We need a FrameConverter to interface with other APIs (Android, Java 2D, or OpenCV). OpenCVFrameConverter.ToIplImage converter = new OpenCVFrameConverter.ToIplImage(); // FAQ about IplImage and Mat objects from OpenCV: // - For custom raw processing of data, createBuffer() returns an NIO direct // buffer wrapped around the memory pointed by imageData, and under Android we can // also use that Buffer with Bitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer() and copyPixelsToBuffer(). // - To get a BufferedImage from an IplImage, or vice versa, we can chain calls to // Java2DFrameConverter and OpenCVFrameConverter, one after the other. // - Java2DFrameConverter also has static copy() methods that we can use to transfer // data more directly between BufferedImage and IplImage or Mat via Frame objects. IplImage grabbedImage = converter.convert(grabber.grab()); int width = grabbedImage.width(); int height = grabbedImage.height(); IplImage grayImage = IplImage.create(width, height, IPL_DEPTH_8U, 1); IplImage rotatedImage = grabbedImage.clone(); // Objects allocated with a create*() or clone() factory method are automatically released // by the garbage collector, but may still be explicitly released by calling release(). // You shall NOT call cvReleaseImage(), cvReleaseMemStorage(), etc. on objects allocated this way. CvMemStorage storage = CvMemStorage.create(); // The OpenCVFrameRecorder class simply uses the CvVideoWriter of opencv_videoio, // but FFmpegFrameRecorder also exists as a more versatile alternative. FrameRecorder recorder = FrameRecorder.createDefault("output.avi", width, height); recorder.start(); // CanvasFrame is a JFrame containing a Canvas component, which is hardware accelerated. // It can also switch into full-screen mode when called with a screenNumber. // We should also specify the relative monitor/camera response for proper gamma correction. CanvasFrame frame = new CanvasFrame("Some Title", CanvasFrame.getDefaultGamma()/grabber.getGamma()); // Let's create some random 3D rotation... CvMat randomR = CvMat.create(3, 3), randomAxis = CvMat.create(3, 1); // We can easily and efficiently access the elements of matrices and images // through an Indexer object with the set of get() and put() methods. DoubleIndexer Ridx = randomR.createIndexer(), axisIdx = randomAxis.createIndexer(); axisIdx.put(0, (Math.random()-0.5)/4, (Math.random()-0.5)/4, (Math.random()-0.5)/4); cvRodrigues2(randomAxis, randomR, null); double f = (width + height)/2.0; Ridx.put(0, 2, Ridx.get(0, 2)*f); Ridx.put(1, 2, Ridx.get(1, 2)*f); Ridx.put(2, 0, Ridx.get(2, 0)/f); Ridx.put(2, 1, Ridx.get(2, 1)/f); System.out.println(Ridx); // We can allocate native arrays using constructors taking an integer as argument. CvPoint hatPoints = new CvPoint(3); while (frame.isVisible() && (grabbedImage = converter.convert(grabber.grab())) != null) { cvClearMemStorage(storage); // Let's try to detect some faces! but we need a grayscale image... cvCvtColor(grabbedImage, grayImage, CV_BGR2GRAY); CvSeq faces = cvHaarDetectObjects(grayImage, classifier, storage, 1.1, 3, CV_HAAR_FIND_BIGGEST_OBJECT | CV_HAAR_DO_ROUGH_SEARCH); int total = faces.total(); for (int i = 0; i < total; i++) { CvRect r = new CvRect(cvGetSeqElem(faces, i)); int x = r.x(), y = r.y(), w = r.width(), h = r.height(); cvRectangle(grabbedImage, cvPoint(x, y), cvPoint(x+w, y+h), CvScalar.RED, 1, CV_AA, 0); // To access or pass as argument the elements of a native array, call position() before. hatPoints.position(0).x(x-w/10) .y(y-h/10); hatPoints.position(1).x(x+w*11/10).y(y-h/10); hatPoints.position(2).x(x+w/2) .y(y-h/2); cvFillConvexPoly(grabbedImage, hatPoints.position(0), 3, CvScalar.GREEN, CV_AA, 0); } // Let's find some contours! but first some thresholding... cvThreshold(grayImage, grayImage, 64, 255, CV_THRESH_BINARY); // To check if an output argument is null we may call either isNull() or equals(null). CvSeq contour = new CvSeq(null); cvFindContours(grayImage, storage, contour, Loader.sizeof(CvContour.class), CV_RETR_LIST, CV_CHAIN_APPROX_SIMPLE); while (contour != null && !contour.isNull()) { if (contour.elem_size() > 0) { CvSeq points = cvApproxPoly(contour, Loader.sizeof(CvContour.class), storage, CV_POLY_APPROX_DP, cvContourPerimeter(contour)*0.02, 0); cvDrawContours(grabbedImage, points, CvScalar.BLUE, CvScalar.BLUE, -1, 1, CV_AA); } contour = contour.h_next(); } cvWarpPerspective(grabbedImage, rotatedImage, randomR); Frame rotatedFrame = converter.convert(rotatedImage); frame.showImage(rotatedFrame); recorder.record(rotatedFrame); } frame.dispose(); recorder.stop(); grabber.stop(); } } Furthermore, after creating a pom.xml file with the following content: <project> <modelVersion>4.0.0</modelVersion> <groupId>org.bytedeco.javacv</groupId> <artifactId>demo</artifactId> <version>1.3.3</version> <dependencies> <dependency> <groupId>org.bytedeco</groupId> <artifactId>javacv-platform</artifactId> <version>1.3.3</version> </dependency> </dependencies> </project> And by placing the source code above in src/main/java/Demo.java, we can use the following command to have everything first installed automatically and then executed by Maven: $ mvn compile exec:java -Dexec.mainClass=Demo Build Instructions If the binary files available above are not enough for your needs, you might need to rebuild them from the source code. To this end, the project files were created for: Maven 3.x http://maven.apache.org/download.html JavaCPP 1.3 https://github.com/bytedeco/javacpp JavaCPP Presets 1.3 https://github.com/bytedeco/javacpp-presets Once installed, simply call the usual mvn install command for JavaCPP, its Presets, and JavaCV. By default, no other dependencies than a C++ compiler for JavaCPP are required. Please refer to the comments inside the pom.xml files for further details. Project lead: Samuel Audet [samuel.audet at gmail.com](mailto:samuel.audet at gmail.com) Developer site: https://github.com/bytedeco/javacv Discussion group: http://groups.google.com/group/javacv
View Assessment Result: Multiple-Choice Quiz 2 Your performance was as follows: 1. The degree of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) keys (b) columns (c) rows (d) foreign keys Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (b) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) keys (b) columns (c) foreign keys (d) rows Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (b) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 3. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table (b) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have (c) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (d) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (d) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 4. The foreign key in a table T1 _____ the same _____ as the corresponding primary key in table T2. must have, name need not have, name must have, domain (a) I, II, and III (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) II and III Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (d) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 5. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to add a row to a table? (a) CREATE (b) INSERT (c) APPEND (d) ADD Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (b) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 6. A difference operation can be applied to tables that (a) are union compatible (b) have the same column names (c) have the same name (d) are the same size Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (a) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 7. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to create a relational table? (a) INSERT (b) ADD (c) CREATE (d) APPEND Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (c) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 8. For two tables to be union compatible, the tables should be the same with respect to which of the following? (a) keys (b) cardinality (c) name (d) degree Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: (b) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 9. A deletion operation will _____ if the deletion leads to the violation of a referential integrity constraint. (a) fail (b) succeed with warning (c) succeed without warning (d) crash the system Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (a) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 10. With Query By Example, a user enters a query by (a) filling in skeleton tables of the database with examples of what is to be retrieved (b) placing SQL keywords, such as select, under the column names they want to retrieve (c) typing a syntactically correct SQL query that uses column and table names similar to the correct column and table names in a database (d) writing an English description of the data that the user needs Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: See section 1.2.3 in the course notes. (a) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Go to top of assessment. Total score: 90.00 ? Copyright 2008 iCarnegie, Inc. All rights reserved. 1. In the Entity-Relationship model, the degree of a relationship specifies which of the following? (a) The cardinality ratio of the relationship (b) The number of integrity constraints required to implement the relationship (c) The number of attributes that characterize the relationship (d) The number of entities that participate in the relationship Correct answer is (d) 2. In an ER model, which of the following is true about a component attribute? (a) A component attribute is always atomic. (b) Component attributes must always be combined by an aggregation operation. (c) A component attribute can be a composite attribute. (d) A component attribute always contains other components. Correct answer is (c) 3. In the Entity-Relationship model, properties that characterize entities and relationships are modeled as (a) attributes (b) participation constraints (c) entity types (d) weak entities Correct answer is (a) 4. What is an identifying owner in an ER model? (a) The entity upon which a weak entity's existence depends (b) The relationship that identifies a weak entity's owner (c) The entity upon which a strong entity's existence depends (d) The relationship that identifies a strong entity's owner Correct answer is (a) 5. In an ER model, the cardinality ratio of a relationship type is (a) the number of instances of relationships of that relationship type (b) the number of entity types involved in that relationship type (c) the number of relationships of that relationship type in which an entity can participate (d) the minimum number of entities that can participate in that relationship type Correct answer is (c) 6. Which of the following is true about storage for derived attributes? (a) Derived attributes must not be stored. (b) Derived attributes are usually stored because storage improves retrieval performance. (c) Derived attributes must be stored. (d) Derived attributes are usually not stored because they can be computed. Correct answer is (d) 7. In an ER model, what is a recursive relationship type? (a) A never-ending type of relationship (b) The type of relationship that does not belong anywhere (c) The type of relationship between entities of one entity type (d) The relationship type where the related entities are one and the same Correct answer is (c) 8. In EER modeling, generalization is the process of generating (a) superclasses out of subclasses (b) subclasses out of superclasses (c) entities out of attributes (d) attributes out of entities Correct answer is (a) 9. When mapping from an ER model to a relational model, a strong entity is mapped into a (a) table (b) row (c) column (d) key Correct answer is (a) 10. Which of the following is true about attributes in a relational model? Attributes can be multi-valued. Attributes can be composite. (a) Both I and II (b) II only (c) Neither I nor II (d) I only Correct answer is (c) 1. In an ER model, what is a recursive relationship type? (a) The relationship type where the related entities are one and the same (b) The type of relationship that does not belong anywhere (c) The type of relationship between entities of one entity type (d) A never-ending type of relationship Correct answer is (c) 2. In an ER model, the cardinality ratio of a relationship type is (a) the number of relationships of that relationship type in which an entity can participate (b) the minimum number of entities that can participate in that relationship type (c) the number of entity types involved in that relationship type (d) the number of instances of relationships of that relationship type Correct answer is (a) 3. In the Entity-Relationship model, a derived attribute is one (a) that is composed of multiple atomic attributes (b) that characterizes a relationship instead of an entity (c) that may have multiple values simultaneously (d) whose value can be computed from the values of other attributes Correct answer is (d) 4. In the Entity-Relationship model, properties that characterize entities and relationships are modeled as (a) entity types (b) weak entities (c) attributes (d) participation constraints Correct answer is (c) 5. Which of the following is true about storage for derived attributes? (a) Derived attributes must be stored. (b) Derived attributes are usually stored because storage improves retrieval performance. (c) Derived attributes must not be stored. (d) Derived attributes are usually not stored because they can be computed. Correct answer is (d) 6. What is an identifying owner in an ER model? (a) The relationship that identifies a weak entity's owner (b) The relationship that identifies a strong entity's owner (c) The entity upon which a strong entity's existence depends (d) The entity upon which a weak entity's existence depends Correct answer is (d) 7. In an ER model, which of the following is true about a component attribute? (a) A component attribute always contains other components. (b) A component attribute can be a composite attribute. (c) A component attribute is always atomic. (d) Component attributes must always be combined by an aggregation operation. Correct answer is (b) 8. In EER modeling, generalization is the process of generating (a) attributes out of entities (b) superclasses out of subclasses (c) subclasses out of superclasses (d) entities out of attributes Correct answer is (b) 9. When mapping from an ER model to a relational model, a strong entity is mapped into a (a) key (b) row (c) column (d) table Correct answer is (d) 10. Which of the following is true about attributes in a relational model? Attributes can be multi-valued. Attributes can be composite. (a) I only (b) II only (c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II Correct answer is (c) 1. Through normalization, update anomalies (a) can be eliminated (b) is usually left unchanged (c) can be maximized (d) can be minimized but not eliminated Correct answer is (a) 2. Which of the following is a property (are properties) exhibited by good relational schemas? The use of null values in tuples The grouping of as many attributes as possible into one main table The elimination of data redundancy to avoid update anomalies (a) III only (b) None (c) I and II only (d) II and III only Correct answer is (a) 3. Which of the following statements concerning normal forms is true? (a) A relation that is in second normal form is also in first normal form. (b) The lower the normal form number, the better the schema design is. (c) Each normal form contains a state of independent properties, unrelated to other normal forms. (d) Schemas that are in second normal form are considered the best. Correct answer is (a) 4. Consider the following functional dependency. {A, B} -> {C} Regarding this dependency, which of the following statements is (are) true? The values of C are uniquely determined by the values of A. The values of A are uniquely determined by the values of C. (a) None (b) II only (c) I only (d) I and II Correct answer is (a) 5. Which of the following problems can be caused by data redundancy in a relational schema? Inefficient use of space Update anomalies and possible loss of data Inefficient use of processing time (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) I, II, and III (d) II only Correct answer is (c) 6. Consider a table with atomic attributes A, B, and C and the following functional dependencies. A -> B B -> C If the primary key of this table is attribute A, then this relation satisfies which of the following normal forms? First Second Third (a) None (b) I only (c) I, II and III (d) I and II only Correct answer is (d) 7. For a relation to be in 3NF, it should not contain _____ attribute that is transitively dependent on _____. (a) a non-primary key, a foreign key (b) a primary key, a non-primary key (c) a primary key, a foreign key (d) a non-primary key, the primary key Correct answer is (d) 8. The FD X -> Y is a full dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) no, added to (b) no, removed from (c) at least one, removed from (d) at least one, added to Correct answer is (b) 9. For a relation to be in 2NF, _____ attribute must be fully functionally dependent on _____. (a) every non-primary-key, the primary key (b) every alternate key, the primary key (c) every non-key, every key (d) every non-key, at least one key Correct answer is (a) 10. The FD X -> Y is a partial dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) at least one, removed from (b) at least one, added to (c) no, added to (d) no, removed from Correct answer is (a) 1. Through normalization, update anomalies (a) can be eliminated (b) is usually left unchanged (c) can be minimized but not eliminated (d) can be maximized Correct answer is (a) 2. Consider the following functional dependency. {A, B} -> {C} Regarding this dependency, which of the following statements is (are) true? The values of C are uniquely determined by the values of A. The values of A are uniquely determined by the values of C. (a) None (b) I and II (c) I only (d) II only Correct answer is (a) 3. Which of the following is a property (are properties) exhibited by good relational schemas? The use of null values in tuples The grouping of as many attributes as possible into one main table The elimination of data redundancy to avoid update anomalies (a) III only (b) None (c) II and III only (d) I and II only Correct answer is (a) 4. Through normalization, data redundancy (a) can be eliminated (b) can be maximized (c) can be minimized but not eliminated (d) are usually left unchanged Correct answer is (a) 5. Which of the following statements concerning normal forms is true? (a) A relation that is in second normal form is also in first normal form. (b) Each normal form contains a state of independent properties, unrelated to other normal forms. (c) Schemas that are in second normal form are considered the best. (d) The lower the normal form number, the better the schema design is. Correct answer is (a) 6. For a relation to be in 3NF, it should not contain _____ attribute that is transitively dependent on _____. (a) a primary key, a foreign key (b) a primary key, a non-primary key (c) a non-primary key, a foreign key (d) a non-primary key, the primary key Correct answer is (d) 7. The FD X -> Y is a full dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) no, removed from (b) at least one, removed from (c) at least one, added to (d) no, added to Correct answer is (a) 8. Consider a table with atomic attributes A, B, and C and the following functional dependencies. A -> B B -> C If the primary key of this table is attribute A, then this relation satisfies which of the following normal forms? First Second Third (a) I, II and III (b) None (c) I and II only (d) I only Correct answer is (c) 9. For a relation to be in 2NF, _____ attribute must be fully functionally dependent on _____. (a) every alternate key, the primary key (b) every non-key, at least one key (c) every non-key, every key (d) every non-primary-key, the primary key Correct answer is (d) 10. The FD X -> Y is a partial dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) no, added to (b) no, removed from (c) at least one, added to (d) at least one, removed from Correct answer is (d) 1. What is an identifying owner in an ER model? (a) The entity upon which a weak entity's existence depends (b) The relationship that identifies a weak entity's owner (c) The relationship that identifies a strong entity's owner (d) The entity upon which a strong entity's existence depends Correct answer is (a) 2. In an ER model, the cardinality ratio of a relationship type is (a) the minimum number of entities that can participate in that relationship type (b) the number of instances of relationships of that relationship type (c) the number of entity types involved in that relationship type (d) the number of relationships of that relationship type in which an entity can participate Correct answer is (d) 3. In the Entity-Relationship model, properties that characterize entities and relationships are modeled as (a) entity types (b) participation constraints (c) weak entities (d) attributes Correct answer is (d) 4. In an ER model, what is a recursive relationship type? (a) A never-ending type of relationship (b) The relationship type where the related entities are one and the same (c) The type of relationship between entities of one entity type (d) The type of relationship that does not belong anywhere Correct answer is (c) 5. In the Entity-Relationship model, a derived attribute is one (a) that characterizes a relationship instead of an entity (b) that may have multiple values simultaneously (c) whose value can be computed from the values of other attributes (d) that is composed of multiple atomic attributes Correct answer is (c) 6. In the Entity-Relationship model, the degree of a relationship specifies which of the following? (a) The number of attributes that characterize the relationship (b) The number of entities that participate in the relationship (c) The cardinality ratio of the relationship (d) The number of integrity constraints required to implement the relationship Correct answer is (b) 7. Which of the following is true about storage for derived attributes? (a) Derived attributes are usually not stored because they can be computed. (b) Derived attributes are usually stored because storage improves retrieval performance. (c) Derived attributes must be stored. (d) Derived attributes must not be stored. Correct answer is (a) 8. In EER modeling, generalization is the process of generating (a) superclasses out of subclasses (b) entities out of attributes (c) subclasses out of superclasses (d) attributes out of entities Correct answer is (a) 9. When mapping from an ER model to a relational model, a strong entity is mapped into a (a) key (b) table (c) row (d) column Correct answer is (b) 10. Which of the following is true about attributes in a relational model? Attributes can be multi-valued. Attributes can be composite. (a) II only (b) I only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II Correct answer is (d) 1. Which of the following is true about storage for derived attributes? (a) Derived attributes are usually stored because storage improves retrieval performance. (b) Derived attributes must be stored. (c) Derived attributes are usually not stored because they can be computed. (d) Derived attributes must not be stored. Correct answer is (c) 2. In an ER model, the cardinality ratio of a relationship type is (a) the minimum number of entities that can participate in that relationship type (b) the number of entity types involved in that relationship type (c) the number of relationships of that relationship type in which an entity can participate (d) the number of instances of relationships of that relationship type Correct answer is (c) 3. In the Entity-Relationship model, the degree of a relationship specifies which of the following? (a) The number of attributes that characterize the relationship (b) The number of integrity constraints required to implement the relationship (c) The cardinality ratio of the relationship (d) The number of entities that participate in the relationship Correct answer is (d) 4. In the Entity-Relationship model, properties that characterize entities and relationships are modeled as (a) weak entities (b) participation constraints (c) attributes (d) entity types Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 0.00 5. A weak entity type implies a (a) weak relationship type (b) relationship with total participation constraint (c) strong relationship type (d) relationship with partial participation constraint Correct answer is (b) 6. In an ER model, which of the following is true about a component attribute? (a) A component attribute can be a composite attribute. (b) Component attributes must always be combined by an aggregation operation. (c) A component attribute always contains other components. (d) A component attribute is always atomic. Correct answer is (a) 7. In the Entity-Relationship model, a derived attribute is one (a) that characterizes a relationship instead of an entity (b) that is composed of multiple atomic attributes (c) whose value can be computed from the values of other attributes (d) that may have multiple values simultaneously Correct answer is (c) 1. Through normalization, update anomalies (a) is usually left unchanged (b) can be minimized but not eliminated (c) can be maximized (d) can be eliminated Correct answer is (d) 2. Which of the following problems can be caused by data redundancy in a relational schema? Inefficient use of space Update anomalies and possible loss of data Inefficient use of processing time (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (d) 3. Consider the following functional dependency. {A, B} -> {C} Regarding this dependency, which of the following statements is (are) true? The values of C are uniquely determined by the values of A. The values of A are uniquely determined by the values of C. (a) I only (b) I and II (c) II only (d) None Correct answer is (d) 4. Which of the following is a property (are properties) exhibited by good relational schemas? The use of null values in tuples The grouping of as many attributes as possible into one main table The elimination of data redundancy to avoid update anomalies (a) III only (b) II and III only (c) I and II only (d) None Correct answer is (a) 5. Which of the following statements concerning normal forms is true? (a) Schemas that are in second normal form are considered the best. (b) Each normal form contains a state of independent properties, unrelated to other normal forms. (c) A relation that is in second normal form is also in first normal form. (d) The lower the normal form number, the better the schema design is. Correct answer is (c) 6. The FD X -> Y is a partial dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) at least one, added to (b) at least one, removed from (c) no, removed from (d) no, added to Correct answer is (b) 7. For a relation to be in 2NF, _____ attribute must be fully functionally dependent on _____. (a) every non-primary-key, the primary key (b) every non-key, at least one key (c) every non-key, every key (d) every alternate key, the primary key Correct answer is (a) 8. Consider a table with atomic attributes A, B, and C and the following functional dependencies. A -> B B -> C If the primary key of this table is attribute A, then this relation satisfies which of the following normal forms? First Second Third (a) I only (b) None (c) I and II only (d) I, II and III Correct answer is (c) 9. The FD X -> Y is a full dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) no, removed from (b) at least one, removed from (c) at least one, added to (d) no, added to Correct answer is (a) 10. For a relation to be in 3NF, it should not contain _____ attribute that is transitively dependent on _____. (a) a primary key, a foreign key (b) a non-primary key, a foreign key (c) a non-primary key, the primary key (d) a primary key, a non-primary key Correct answer is (c) 1. Which of the following statements concerning normal forms is true? (a) The lower the normal form number, the better the schema design is. (b) A relation that is in second normal form is also in first normal form. (c) Schemas that are in second normal form are considered the best. (d) Each normal form contains a state of independent properties, unrelated to other normal forms. Correct answer is (b) 2. Consider the following functional dependency. {A, B} -> {C} Regarding this dependency, which of the following statements is (are) true? The values of C are uniquely determined by the values of A. The values of A are uniquely determined by the values of C. (a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) None Correct answer is (d) 3. Which of the following problems can be caused by data redundancy in a relational schema? Inefficient use of space Update anomalies and possible loss of data Inefficient use of processing time (a) I, II, and III (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d) II only Correct answer is (a) Y 4. Through normalization, update anomalies (a) can be eliminated (b) can be maximized (c) is usually left unchanged (d) can be minimized but not eliminated Correct answer is (a) 5. Which of the following is a property (are properties) exhibited by good relational schemas? The use of null values in tuples The grouping of as many attributes as possible into one main table The elimination of data redundancy to avoid update anomalies (a) I and II only (b) III only (c) None (d) II and III only Correct answer is (b) 6. Consider a table with atomic attributes A, B, and C and the following functional dependencies. A -> B B -> C If the primary key of this table is attribute A, then this relation satisfies which of the following normal forms? First Second Third (a) I and II only (b) I only (c) I, II and III (d) None Correct answer is (a) 7. For a relation to be in 3NF, it should not contain _____ attribute that is transitively dependent on _____. (a) a non-primary key, a foreign key (b) a primary key, a foreign key (c) a primary key, a non-primary key (d) a non-primary key, the primary key Correct answer is (d) 8. The FD X -> Y is a partial dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) at least one, added to (b) no, removed from (c) no, added to (d) at least one, removed from Correct answer is (d) 9. For a relation to be in 2NF, _____ attribute must be fully functionally dependent on _____. (a) every non-primary-key, the primary key (b) every alternate key, the primary key (c) every non-key, every key (d) every non-key, at least one key Correct answer is (a) 10. The FD X -> Y is a full dependency in a relation R, if there is _____ attribute A that can be _____ X and the dependency still holds. (a) no, added to (b) at least one, removed from (c) at least one, added to (d) no, removed from Correct answer is (d) 1. In an ER model, which of the following is true about a composite attribute? (a) A composite attribute can have a method attached to it. (b) A composite attribute cannot be broken into more basic attributes. (c) A composite attribute can be broken into more basic attributes. (d) A composite attribute can only be designed by users with special privileges. Correct answer is (c) 2. The term physical data independence refers to the ability to change (a) the physical layout of the data without changing the external schemas, the conceptual schemas, or the application programs (b) the data without physically relocating the tables (c) the conceptual schema without changing the application programs (d) the application programs without changing the conceptual schema Correct answer is (a) 3. What attributes does a subclass have? (a) None of the attributes of its superclass (b) All the attributes of its superclass, and possibly more (c) Just the attributes from the superclass (d) A subset of the attributes of its superclass Correct answer is (b) 4. If X -> Y, which of the following would make Y fully dependent on X? (a) Y is a single attribute (b) X is a single attribute (c) X consists of multiple attributes (d) Y consists of multiple attributes Correct answer is (b) 5. In an ER model, what is the degree of a relationship type? (a) The validity of the relationship type (b) The strength of the relationship type (c) The number of entity types participating in the relationship type (d) The number of instances of the relationship type Correct answer is (c) 6. Database design typically consists of which of the following phases? Conceptual design Logical design Physical design (a) II only (b) I, II, and III (c) II and III only (d) I only Correct answer is (b) 7. A relational schema is in first normal form, if the domain of all of its (a) primary keys are not multi-valued (b) primary keys and alternate keys are not multi-valued (c) primary keys are not composite (d) attributes can take on only atomic values Correct answer is (d) 8. In an ER model, a derived attribute is one whose values (a) have been derived at some time in the past (b) can be derived from the values of some other attributes (c) can be derived from the system tables (d) can be derived from another table Correct answer is (b) 9. Y is transitively dependent on X, if (a) X -> Y and A -> Y (b) X -> A, B and A -> Y (c) X -> Y and Y -> A (d) X -> A, B and Y -> A, B Correct answer is (b) 10. Relationships in an ER model are primarily translated to which of the following in a relational model? (a) relationships (b) primary keys and foreign keys (c) three-way tables (d) dummy relationship tables Correct answer is (b) View Assessment Result With Query By Example, a user enters a query by (a) filling in skeleton tables of the database with examples of what is to be retrieved (b) placing SQL keywords, such as select, under the column names they want to retrieve (c) writing an English description of the data that the user needs (d) typing a syntactically correct SQL query that uses column and table names similar to the correct column and table names in a database F Your performance was as follows: You took 2 minutes on this assessment from Tue Mar 17 05:22:13 UTC+0800 2009 to Tue Mar 17 05:24:13 UTC+0800 2009. Total score: 100.00 1. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of the same components must be included in a database management system? 1 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 2 A collection of programs must be included that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains, such as in a library information system. 3 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) II only (b) I, II, and III (c) I only (d) II and III only Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: A DBMS refers to just the set of general-purpose programs to control data. (a) 2. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components will constitute a database system? 4 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 5 A collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data constitutes a database system. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains such as in a library information system. 6 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system, constitutes a database system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I only (b) I, II, and III (c) I and II only (d) II only Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: A database system includes the data, the DBMS, and the application-specific programs that operate on that data. (b) 3. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components must be included in a database? 7 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 8 A database must include a collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains. 9 A database must include a collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I and II only (b) I only (c) II only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: Database refers to just the data (b) 4. An E-Commerce database contains data about customers, products, orders, system response times, etc. Which of the following can be specified as integrity constraints in an E-Commerce database system? 10 No two products can have the same product ID. 11 The DBMS response time for all Web requests should be at most 2 seconds. 12 A customer order cannot have more than one shipping address. (a) I and III only (b) I and II only (c) I only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: The constraints I, II and III specify the application semantics of the data captured in the E-Commerce database. Constraint II, although it seems contrary to common sense, is not something that can be prohibited by the DBMS because the DBMS is general purpose. The response time of the DBMS cannot be enforced by the DBMS. It depends on factors such the processor speed, memory available, etc. (a) 5. In a database system, whose responsibility is it to provide data consistency? (a) the user's (b) the application programmer's (c) the DBMS's (d) the database administrator's Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: (c) 6. A database is needed for which of the following application scenarios? 13 A video store that needs to keep track of data about members, about videos carried by the store, about videos rented by members, as well as data concerning borrow-date, return-date, and payment information. 14 In the human resources department of a company, information about employees, their titles, their salaries and sick days, and about vacation days taken by each employee. 15 A computer-simulated video game which needs to calculate and display, the physical (x, y) location of each actor in the game, the speed with which they are moving at the current instant, the direction in which they are moving, the action they are performing, the angle at which the game-player is viewing the scene. (a) I only (b) I, II, and III (c) I and II only (d) I and III only Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: (c) 7. The physical storage structure will be _____ to the application programmer in a database approach, and will be _____ to the application programmer in a file system approach. (a) hidden, hidden (b) hidden, visible (c) visible, visible (d) visible, hidden Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: The layer of abstraction offered by a DBMS hides the physical storage structure from the application programmer. (b) Go to top of assessment. Total score: 100.00 Your performance was as follows: You took 3 minutes on this assessment from Tue Mar 17 04:27:27 UTC+0800 2009 to Tue Mar 17 04:30:02 UTC+0800 2009. Total score: 85.71 1. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components must be included in a database? 1 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 2 A database must include a collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains. 3 A database must include a collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) II only (b) I and II only (c) I only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: Database refers to just the data (c) 2. In a database system, whose responsibility is it to provide data consistency? (a) the database administrator's (b) the user's (c) the application programmer's (d) the DBMS's Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: (d) 3. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components will constitute a database system? 4 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 5 A collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data constitutes a database system. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains such as in a library information system. 6 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system, constitutes a database system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and II only (d) II only Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: A database system includes the data, the DBMS, and the application-specific programs that operate on that data. (a) 4. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of the same components must be included in a database management system? 7 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 8 A collection of programs must be included that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains, such as in a library information system. 9 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I only (b) I, II, and III (c) II only (d) II and III only Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: A DBMS refers to just the set of general-purpose programs to control data. (d) 5. An E-Commerce database contains data about customers, products, orders, system response times, etc. Which of the following can be specified as integrity constraints in an E-Commerce database system? 10 No two products can have the same product ID. 11 The DBMS response time for all Web requests should be at most 2 seconds. 12 A customer order cannot have more than one shipping address. (a) I, II, and III (b) I only (c) I and II only (d) I and III only Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: The constraints I, II and III specify the application semantics of the data captured in the E-Commerce database. Constraint II, although it seems contrary to common sense, is not something that can be prohibited by the DBMS because the DBMS is general purpose. The response time of the DBMS cannot be enforced by the DBMS. It depends on factors such the processor speed, memory available, etc. (d) 6. A database is needed for which of the following application scenarios? 13 A video store that needs to keep track of data about members, about videos carried by the store, about videos rented by members, as well as data concerning borrow-date, return-date, and payment information. 14 In the human resources department of a company, information about employees, their titles, their salaries and sick days, and about vacation days taken by each employee. 15 A computer-simulated video game which needs to calculate and display, the physical (x, y) location of each actor in the game, the speed with which they are moving at the current instant, the direction in which they are moving, the action they are performing, the angle at which the game-player is viewing the scene. (a) I and II only (b) I only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and III only Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: (a) 7. The physical storage structure will be _____ to the application programmer in a database approach, and will be _____ to the application programmer in a file system approach. (a) visible, hidden (b) hidden, hidden (c) hidden, visible (d) visible, visible Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: The layer of abstraction offered by a DBMS hides the physical storage structure from the application programmer. (c) Go to top of assessment. Total score: 85.71 Total score: 42.86 1. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components must be included in a database? 1 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 2 A database must include a collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains. 3 A database must include a collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I and II only (b) I only (c) II only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: Database refers to just the data (b) 2. In a database system, whose responsibility is it to provide data consistency? (a) the DBMS's (b) the user's (c) the application programmer's (d) the database administrator's Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: (d) 3. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of these same components will constitute a database system? 4 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 5 A collection of programs that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data constitutes a database system. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains such as in a library information system. 6 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system, constitutes a database system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) II only (b) I and II only (c) I, II, and III (d) I only Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: A database system includes the data, the DBMS, and the application-specific programs that operate on that data. (a) 4. An E-Commerce system consists of the following components. Which of the same components must be included in a database management system? 7 The data, such as information about the goods available for sale, customers, orders placed, shipping information, etc. 8 A collection of programs must be included that control the data, such as programs to create, maintain, and manipulate the data. These programs can be easily used to create, maintain, and manipulate data in other domains, such as in a library information system. 9 A collection of programs that operate on the data, but are specific to the E-commerce system. These programs enable users to browse through the store-items, place orders, track shipping, etc. (a) I, II, and III (b) II only (c) I only (d) II and III only Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: A DBMS refers to just the set of general-purpose programs to control data. (d) 5. An E-Commerce database contains data about customers, products, orders, system response times, etc. Which of the following can be specified as integrity constraints in an E-Commerce database system? 10 No two products can have the same product ID. 11 The DBMS response time for all Web requests should be at most 2 seconds. 12 A customer order cannot have more than one shipping address. (a) I only (b) I and III only (c) I and II only (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: The constraints I, II and III specify the application semantics of the data captured in the E-Commerce database. Constraint II, although it seems contrary to common sense, is not something that can be prohibited by the DBMS because the DBMS is general purpose. The response time of the DBMS cannot be enforced by the DBMS. It depends on factors such the processor speed, memory available, etc. (d) 6. A database is needed for which of the following application scenarios? 13 A video store that needs to keep track of data about members, about videos carried by the store, about videos rented by members, as well as data concerning borrow-date, return-date, and payment information. 14 In the human resources department of a company, information about employees, their titles, their salaries and sick days, and about vacation days taken by each employee. 15 A computer-simulated video game which needs to calculate and display, the physical (x, y) location of each actor in the game, the speed with which they are moving at the current instant, the direction in which they are moving, the action they are performing, the angle at which the game-player is viewing the scene. (a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I, II, and III (d) I and III only Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: (b) 7. The physical storage structure will be _____ to the application programmer in a database approach, and will be _____ to the application programmer in a file system approach. (a) visible, visible (b) visible, hidden (c) hidden, visible (d) hidden, hidden Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 14.29 Feedback: The layer of abstraction offered by a DBMS hides the physical storage structure from the application programmer. (c) Go to top of assessment. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) columns (c) keys (d) foreign keys Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 2. The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) foreign keys (c) keys (d) columns Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 3. The degree of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) columns (c) foreign keys (d) keys Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 4. The foreign key in a table T1 _____ the same _____ as the corresponding primary key in table T2. 1 must have, name 2 need not have, name 3 must have, domain (a) I and III (b) II and III (c) I, II, and III (d) I and II Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 5. The SQL clause to perform a set UNION operation is (a) MELD (b) UNITE (c) UNION (d) COMBINE Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 6. DML is used to (a) manipulate the structure of database applications. (b) add/modify/delete data in the database. (c) specify the structure of a database. (d) add and delete tables. Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 7. DDL is used to (a) specify the structure of a database. (b) add contents to tables. (c) access the contents of tables. (d) define the structure of database applications. Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 8. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to create a relational table? (a) APPEND (b) CREATE (c) ADD (d) INSERT Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 9. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to modify just one row (out of many rows) in a table? (a) CHANGE (b) UPDATE (c) ALTER (d) MODIFY Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: 10. The term query by example refers to (a) a visual query language developed by IBM (b) a query for SQL examples (c) example SQL queries provided by the DBMS that users can modify to suit their current needs (d) example SQL queries provided by other users that can be modified to suit current needs Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: See section 1.2.3 in the course notes. Your performance was as follows: You took 4 minutes on this assessment from Wed Mar 29 08:46:41 UTC+0800 2006 to Wed Mar 29 08:50:36 UTC+0800 2006. Total score: 90.00 1. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes (b) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have (c) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (d) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: 2. The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) columns (b) foreign keys (c) rows (d) keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 3. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) foreign keys (b) keys (c) rows (d) columns Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 4. The degree of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) foreign keys (c) columns (d) keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 5. A difference operation can be applied to tables that (a) are union compatible (b) have the same name (c) are the same size (d) have the same column names Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 6. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to remove a row from a table? (a) DESTROY (b) DELETE (c) ERASE (d) REMOVE Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 7. DML is used to (a) add/modify/delete data in the database. (b) add and delete tables. (c) manipulate the structure of database applications. (d) specify the structure of a database. Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 8. A deletion operation will _____ if the deletion leads to the violation of a referential integrity constraint. (a) fail (b) succeed with warning (c) succeed without warning (d) crash the system Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 9. DDL is used to (a) access the contents of tables. (b) add contents to tables. (c) define the structure of database applications. (d) specify the structure of a database. Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 10. With Query By Example, a user enters a query by (a) writing an English description of the data that the user needs (b) typing a syntactically correct SQL query that uses column and table names similar to the correct column and table names in a database (c) filling in skeleton tables of the database with examples of what is to be retrieved (d) placing SQL keywords, such as select, under the column names they want to retrieve Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 1. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes (b) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have (c) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (d) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: 2. The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) columns (b) foreign keys (c) rows (d) keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 3. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) foreign keys (b) keys (c) rows (d) columns Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 4. The degree of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) foreign keys (c) columns (d) keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 5. A difference operation can be applied to tables that (a) are union compatible (b) have the same name (c) are the same size (d) have the same column names Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 6. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to remove a row from a table? (a) DESTROY (b) DELETE (c) ERASE (d) REMOVE Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 7. DML is used to (a) add/modify/delete data in the database. (b) add and delete tables. (c) manipulate the structure of database applications. (d) specify the structure of a database. Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 8. A deletion operation will _____ if the deletion leads to the violation of a referential integrity constraint. (a) fail (b) succeed with warning (c) succeed without warning (d) crash the system Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 9. DDL is used to (a) access the contents of tables. (b) add contents to tables. (c) define the structure of database applications. (d) specify the structure of a database. Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 10. With Query By Example, a user enters a query by (a) writing an English description of the data that the user needs (b) typing a syntactically correct SQL query that uses column and table names similar to the correct column and table names in a database (c) filling in skeleton tables of the database with examples of what is to be retrieved (d) placing SQL keywords, such as select, under the column names they want to retrieve Correct answer is (c) The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) keys (c) foreign keys (d) columns Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 2. The foreign key in a table T1 _____ the same _____ as the corresponding primary key in table T2. 1 must have, name 2 need not have, name 3 must have, domain (a) I and II (b) I, II, and III (c) II and III (d) I and III Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 3. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (b) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes (c) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have (d) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 4. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) columns (b) foreign keys (c) keys (d) rows Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 5. A difference operation can be applied to tables that (a) are union compatible (b) are the same size (c) have the same name (d) have the same column names Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 6. What can be specified in the selection condition of a SELECT statement? (a) a Boolean operation (b) an arithmetic operation (c) the conditions under which the statement should be executed (d) the time at which the selection should be performed Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 0.00 Feedback: 7. The SQL clause to perform a set UNION operation is (a) MELD (b) UNION (c) UNITE (d) COMBINE Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 8. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to add a row to a table? (a) APPEND (b) CREATE (c) ADD (d) INSERT Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 9. A join operation joins _____ tables into _____. (a) two, one (b) four, two (c) three, one (d) three, two Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 10. With Query By Example, a user enters a query by (a) placing SQL keywords, such as select, under the column names they want to retrieve (b) writing an English description of the data that the user needs (c) typing a syntactically correct SQL query that uses column and table names similar to the correct column and table names in a database (d) filling in skeleton tables of the database with examples of what is to be retrieved Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 The degree of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) foreign keys (b) columns (c) rows (d) keys Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 2. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) rows (b) keys (c) columns (d) foreign keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 3. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table (b) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (c) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have (d) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 4. The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) foreign keys (b) columns (c) keys (d) rows Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 5. DML is used to (a) specify the structure of a database. (b) add and delete tables. (c) manipulate the structure of database applications. (d) add/modify/delete data in the database. Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 6. The SQL clause to perform a set UNION operation is (a) COMBINE (b) UNION (c) UNITE (d) MELD Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 7. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to create a relational table? (a) ADD (b) APPEND (c) CREATE (d) INSERT Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 8. DDL is used to (a) access the contents of tables. (b) specify the structure of a database. (c) add contents to tables. (d) define the structure of database applications. Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 9. What can be specified in the selection condition of a SELECT statement? (a) the time at which the selection should be performed (b) an arithmetic operation (c) the conditions under which the statement should be executed (d) a Boolean operation Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: 10. The term query by example refers to (a) a query for SQL examples (b) example SQL queries provided by other users that can be modified to suit current needs (c) a visual query language developed by IBM (d) example SQL queries provided by the DBMS that users can modify to suit their current needs Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: See section 1.2.3 in the course notes. Go to top of assessment. Your performance was as follows: 1. What information is necessary when specifying the structure of a table? (a) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of attributes, and the formats of attributes (b) the name of the table and the amount of storage space to be allocated to the table (c) the name of the table and the names of the table's attributes (d) the name of the table, the names of the table's attributes, the data types of the table's attributes, the formats of the table's attributes, and the maximum number of rows that the table can have Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (a) 2. The foreign key in a table T1 _____ the same _____ as the corresponding primary key in table T2. 1 must have, name 2 need not have, name 3 must have, domain (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II, and III Correct answer is (b) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (b) 3. The arity of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) foreign keys (b) rows (c) keys (d) columns Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (d) 4. The cardinality of a table is the number of _____ in the table. (a) keys (b) columns (c) rows (d) foreign keys Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (c) 5. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to create a relational table? (a) INSERT (b) ADD (c) CREATE (d) APPEND Correct answer is (c) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (c) 6. The SQL clause to perform a set difference operation is (a) EXCEPT (b) OMIT (c) DIFFER (d) REJECT Correct answer is (a) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (a) 7. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to remove a row from a table? (a) ERASE (b) REMOVE (c) DESTROY (d) DELETE Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (d) 8. Which of the following SQL statements can be used to add a row to a table? (a) ADD (b) APPEND (c) CREATE (d) INSERT Correct answer is (d) Your score on this question is: 10.00 Feedback: (d) 9. What can be specified in the selection condition of a SELECT statement? (a) the time at which the selection should be performed (b) a Boolean operation (c) an arithmetic operat

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