Arpa’s obvious problem and Mehrdad’s terrible solution CodeForces - 742B （异或）

There are some beautiful girls in Arpa’s land as mentioned before.

Once Arpa came up with an obvious problem:

Given an array and a number x, count the number of pairs of indices i, j (1 ≤ i < j ≤ n) such that , where  is bitwise xor operation (see notes for explanation).

Immediately, Mehrdad discovered a terrible solution that nobody trusted. Now Arpa needs your help to implement the solution to that problem.

Input

First line contains two integers n and x (1 ≤ n ≤ 10⁵, 0 ≤ x ≤ 10⁵) — the number of elements in the array and the integer x.

Second line contains n integers a₁, a₂, ..., a_n (1 ≤ a_i ≤ 10⁵) — the elements of the array.

Output

Print a single integer: the answer to the problem.

Example

Input

2 3
1 2

Output

1

Input

6 1
5 1 2 3 4 1

Output

2

Note

In the first sample there is only one pair of i = 1 and j = 2.  so the answer is 1.

In the second sample the only two pairs are i = 3, j = 4 (since ) and i = 1, j = 5(since ).

A bitwise xor takes two bit integers of equal length and performs the logical xoroperation on each pair of corresponding bits. The result in each position is 1 if only the first bit is 1 or only the second bit is 1, but will be 0 if both are 0 or both are 1. You can read more about bitwise xor operation here:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bitwise_operation#XOR.

说明： 虽然是个水题，但是其中用到了一个小技巧，a = b^c <==> b = a^c 然后就是惯用的由一部分直接确定了另一部分。除此之外，虽然数据量不大，但是结果却可能很大，要用 long long

#include <cstdio>
#include <map>
using namespace std;
typedef long long ll;
ll a[100100];
map <ll,ll>mp;
int main()
{
    ll m,n;
    ll cnt = 0;
    scanf("%lld%lld",&m,&n);
    for(int i = 0; i < m ;i++)
    {
        ll x;
        scanf("%lld",&x);
        cnt += mp[x];
        ll tmp = x ^ n;
        mp[tmp]++;
    }
    printf("%lld\n",cnt);
    return 0;
}