Yesterday I took part in the Masters Entrance Exam of Peking University. It was really inspiring! Here is a problem that I understand, have tried true, but do not know how to solve: Prove that ∑ k = 0 m ( − 1 ) k ( m k ) 1 k + n + 1 = ∑ k = 0 n ( − 1 ) k ( n k ) 1 k + m + 1 , \sum_{k=0}^m(-1)^k{m\choose k}\frac{1}{k+n+1}=\sum_{k=0}^n(-1)^k{n\choose k}\frac{1}{k+m+1}, k=0∑m(−1)k(km)k+n+11=k=0∑n(−1)k(kn)k+m+11, where m m m and n n n are positive integers.
Hint: The difficult part is to get rid of the n n n in the denominator on the left. Turn the fraction into an integral.
Challenge: Can you find a closed-form solution?
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