ocp052 2019-03

ocp052 2019-03

QUESTION 1
You notice that the performance of the database has degraded because of frequent checkpoints.
Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Disable automatic checkpoint tuning
B. Check the size of the redo log file size and increase the size if it is small
C. Set the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET parameter as per the advice given by the MTTR Advisor
D. Decrease the number of redo log members if there are more than one redo log members available in each redo log group
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
Session memory for the shared serverBuffers for I/O slavesOracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations

A. Large Pool
B. Redo Log Buffer
C. Database Buffer Cache
D. Program Global Area (PGA)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which of the scenario will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted.
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped.
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted.
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally.
E. The hard disk on which the data files is stored is corrupted.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
You want to enable archiving on your database. Presently, the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:

  1. Shut down the instance.
  2. Execute the ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG command.
  3. Start up the instance and mount the database.
  4. Set the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to $ORACLE_HOME/dest_1.
  5. Open the database.
    Which is the correct sequence of steps for accomplishing the task?
    A. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
    B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
    C. 1, 3, 2, 5; 4 not required
    D. 4, 1, 5, 2; 3 not required
    E. 1, 3, 4, 5; 2 not required
    Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
See the Exhibit:
Which statements are true regarding the USERS tablespace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A bitmap is used to record free extents
B. Free extents information is managed within the tablespace
C. Free extents information is managed in the SYSAUX tablespace
D. The data dictionary tables are updated when extents are allocated or deallocated
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
You have recently collected statistics on certain objects of a schema in your database. But you observe suboptimal execution plans for the queries on these objects
after two days of statistics collection. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to its default value.
Which action would help to use the previous set of statistics on the objects?
A. Restore statistics from statistics history.
B. Reduce the optimizer statistics retention period by 2 days.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Reduce the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period by 2 days.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which three statements regarding the server parameter file (SPFILE) are true? (Choose three.)
A. An SPFILE is a binary file.
B. An SPFILE cannot reside on a client.
C. An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters.
D. An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts.
E. An SPFILE can be read by the database server, but it is not written to by the server.
F. An SPFILE must be created manually, before creating a database, even if you use the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create the database.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Your test database is configured to run in NOARCHIVELOG mode. One of the data files in the USERS tablespace is lost due to a media failure. You notice that all the
online redo logs have been overwritten since the last backup.
What would you do to recover the data file?
A. Take the USERS tablespace offline and re-create the lost data file.
B. Shut down the instance, restore the data file from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance.
C. Shut down the instance, restores all the database files from the last consistent backup and restart the database instance.
D. Take the USERS tablespace offline, restore all the data files of the USERS tablespace from the last consistent backup and make the tablespace online.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Examine the command:
SQL>DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SH’,‘CUSTOMERS’,‘PUBLISH’,‘false’);
Which statement describes the effect of the above command?
A. Automatic statistics collection is stopped for the CUSTOMERS table
B. Statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are locked and cannot be overwritten
C. Existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table become unusable for the query optimizer
D. Subsequently, statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table are stored as pending statistics
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Examine the command:
SQL>ALTER USR skd ACCOUNT LOCK;

Which two statements are true after the command is executed? (Choose two.)
A. The SKD user cannot log in to the database instance
B. The objects owned by the SKD user are not accessible to any user
C. The other users can access the objects owned by the SKD user, on which they have access
D. The password for the SKD user expires and the user is forced to change the password at the next log in
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
For which database operation would you need the database to be in the MOUNT state?
A. Renaming the control files
B. Re-creating the control files
C. Dropping a user in your database
D. Dropping a tablespace in your database
E. Configuring the database instance to operate in the ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG modes
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
The job to gather optimizer statistics for objects runs as part of the automatic maintenance window in your database instance. At a certain point of time, the
maintenance window closes before the statistics are gathered for all objects.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. The statistics collection continues until all objects are processed.
B. The job is terminated and the statistics collected are restored to a time before the job started.
C. This produces an error and the statistics collected are locked until the next time that the maintenance window is opened.

D. The job is terminated and the statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time that the maintenance window is opened.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?
A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER operating groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
SQL> CREATE BIGFILE TABLESPACE MRKT
2 DATAFILE ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/mrkt.dbf’ size 10M LOGGING
3 EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT AUTO;
Tablespace created.
SQL> ALTER DATABASE DEFAULT TABLESPACE MRKT;
Database altered.
Which two statements are true regarding the MRKT tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
B. Segment space is managed by free lists in the tablespace.
C. A user created without being assigned a default tablespace uses this tablespace.

D. The tablespace can be dropped with the current setting with segments present in it.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the MGR_ROLE role.
The user SKD has been granted the CONNECT and RESOURCE roles only. The database administrator (DBA) grants MGR_ROLE to the user SKD by executing
the command:
SQL> GRANT MGR_ROLE TO SKD WITH ADMIN OPTION;
Which statement is true about the user SKD after he/she is granted this role?
Exhibit:

A. The user SKD can grant only the MGR_ROLE role to other users, but not the privileges in it
B. The user SKD can revoke the MGR_ROLE only from the users for whom he/she is the grantor
C. The user SKD can grant the privileges in the MGR_ROLE role to other users but not with ADMIN OPTION
D. The user SKD can grant the privileges in the MGR_ROLE role to other users, but cannot revoke privileges from them
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16

Examine the command that is used to create a table:
Which two statements are true about the effect of the above command? (Choose two.)
A. A CHECK constraint is created on the OID column.
B. A NOT NULL constraint is created on the OID column.
C. The ORDERS table is the only object created in the USERS tablespace.
D. The ORDERS table and a unique index are created in the USERS tablespace.
E. The ORDERS table is created in the USERS tablespace and a unique index is created on the OID column in the SYSTEM tablespace.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A. Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B. Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C. Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D. The whole of Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E. Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F. The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 18
Which three statements are correct about temporary tables? (Choose three.)
A. Indexes and views can be created on temporary tables
B. Both the data and structure of temporary tables can be exported
C. Temporary tables are always created in a user’s temporary tablespace
D. The data inserted into a temporary table in a session is available to other sessions
E. Data Manipulation Language (DML) locks are never acquired on the data of temporary tables
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. Failure when no standby database is configured
B. Failure because a data file is renamed accidentally
C. Failure that requires no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. Failure due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable
Correct Answer: BD

Advising on Repair
On the “View and Manage Failures” page, the Data Recovery Advisor generates a manual checklist after you click the Advise button. Two types of failures can
appear.

• Failures that require human intervention: An example is a connectivity failure when a disk cable is not plugged in.
• Failures that are repaired faster if you can undo a previous erroneous action: For example, if you renamed a data file by error, it is faster to rename it back to its
previous name than to initiate RMAN restoration from backup.
You can initiate the following actions:
• Click “Re-assess Failures” after you perform a manual repair. Resolved failures are implicitly closed; any remaining failures are displayed on the “View and
Manage Failures” page.
• Click “Continue with Advise” to initiate an automated repair. When the Data Recovery Advisor generates an automated repair option, it generates a script that
shows how RMAN plans to repair the failure. Click Continue if you want to execute the automated repair. If you do not want the Data Recovery Advisor to
automatically repair the failure, you can use this script as a starting point for your manual repair.
QUESTION 20
Which two statements correctly describe the relation between a data file and the logical database structures? (Choose two)

A. An extent cannot spread across data files.
B. A segment cannot spread across data files.
C. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
D. A data file can have only one segment created in it.
E. A data block can spread across multiple data files as it can consist of multiple operating system (OS) blocks.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true regarding a tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. It can span multiple databases.
B. It can consist of multiple data files.
C. It can contain blocks of different files.

D. It can contain segments of different sizes.
E. It can contain a part of nonpartitioned segment.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 22
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Data Pump? (Choose two.)
A. EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
B. DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independently of the DATA Pump clients.
C. Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA privilege.
D. Oracle Data Pump imports can be done from the export files generated in the Original Export Release 9.x.
E. EXPDP and IMPDP use the procedures provided by DBMS_METADATA to execute export and import commands.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Which two statements are true about alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Clearing an alert sends the alert to the alert history
B. Response actions cannot be specified with server-generated alerts
C. The nonthreshold alerts appear in the DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS view
D. Server-generated alerts notify the problems that cannot be resolved automatically and require administrators to be notified
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR

B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle Support
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What can you achieve by implementing reverse key index?
A. Reverse the bytes of each column indexed including the row ID
B. Store a bitmap for each key value instead of a list of row IDs in the leaf node
C. Prevent contention on the highest leaf block when using sequences to generate keys
D. Remove repeated key values from the index to fit more index entries in a given amount of disk space
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
SQL> AUDIT DROP ANY TABLE BY scott BY SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
What is the effect of this command?
A. One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed in the session of SCOTT
B. One audit record is generated for the session when SCOTT grants the DROP ANY TABLE privilege to other users
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if user SCOTT successfully drops one or more tables in his session
D. One audit record is created for every session of any other user in which a table owned by SCOTT is dropped successfully
E. One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed by any user to drop tables owned by SCOTT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE users BEGIN BACKUP;
ALTER TABLESPACE users BEGIN BACKUP
*
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01123: cannot start online backup; media recovery not enabled
What could be the reason for this error?
A. The MTTR Advisor is disabled.
B. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
C. The tablespace is already in backup mode.
D. The Flash Recovery Area is not configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
View the Exhibit to examine the error that occurred during the database startup.

You opened an RMAN session for the database. To repair the failure, you executed the following command as the first RMAN command:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of this command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failure.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for recovery.
C. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and remove the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command was not executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
You execute this command to drop the ITEM table, which has the primary key referred in the ORDERS table:
SQL> DROP TABLE scott.item CASCADE CONSTRAINTS PURGE;
Which two statements are true about the effect of the command? (Choose two.)
A. No flashback is possible to bring back the ITEM table
B. The ORDERS table is dropped along with the ITEM table

C. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are disabled
D. The dependent referential integrity constraints in the ORDERS table are removed
E. The table definition of the ITEM table and associated indexes are placed in the recycle bin
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
You plan to move data from a flat file to a table in your database. You decide to use SQL*Loader direct path load method to perform this task. The table in which
you plan to load data in an important table having various integrity constraint defined on it.
Which constraints will remain enabled by default during this operation? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. NOT NULL
D. PRIMARY KEY
E. FOREIGN KEY
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 31
SQL> AUDIT DROP ANY TABLE BY scott BY SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
What is the effect of this command?
A. One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed in the session of SCOTT
B. One audit record is generated for the session when SCOTT grants the DROP ANY TABLE privilege to other users
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if user SCOTT successfully drops one or more tables in his session
D. One audit record is created for every session of any other user in which a table owned by SCOTT is dropped successfully
E. One audit record is created for every successful DROP TABLE command executed by any user to drop tables owned by SCOTT

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
In which situation may the UNDO_RETENTION parameter be ignored, even if it is set to a value?
A. When the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible
B. When there are more than one undo tablespace available in the database
C. When the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled
D. When the undo tablespace is autoextensible and retention guarantee is not enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
The database instance has the following parameter setting:
You have a local operating system user SKD. You create a database user OPS S K D , a n d t h e n a s s i g n e x t e r n a l a u t h e n t i c a t i o n . T h e u s e r O P S SKD, and then assign external authentication. The user OPS SKD,andthenassignexternalauthentication.TheuserOPSSKD has the CREATE
SESSION privilege.
What would you achieve by the above process?
A. The database user OPS S K D w i l l b e a b l e t o a d m i n i s t e r t h e d a t a b a s e . B . T h e a u t h e n t i c a t i o n d e t a i l f o r t h e d a t a b a s e u s e r O P S SKD will be able to administer the database. B. The authentication detail for the database user OPS SKDwillbeabletoadministerthedatabase.B.TheauthenticationdetailforthedatabaseuserOPSSKD is recorded in the password file.

C. The local operating system user SKD will be able to access the database instance without specifying the username and password.
D. The database user OPS$SKD has to login with the password of the local operating system user SKD to access the database instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
The instance abnormally terminates because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery
B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Examine the values for the following initialization parameters:
FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=0
LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=0
Which two will be the implications of these values in your database? (Choose two.)
A. The SGA advisor will be disabled
B. The MTTR advisor will be disabled
C. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be disabled
D. Checkpoint information will not be written to the alert log file

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 36
You have an ORDERS table with the following structure:
The table has data in the ODATE column for all rows. Many orders are placed in a single day. You need to ensure that the ODATE column must contain data for
every order in future.
Which method would serve the purpose?
A. Modify the column using the ALTER TABLE … MODIFY command.
B. Add a UNIQUE constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE … ADD CONSTRAINT command.
C. Add a NOT NULL constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE … ADD CONSTRAINT command.
D. Add a PRIMARY KEY constraint to the column using the ALTER TABLE … ADD CONSTRAINT command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
You have two tables with referential integrity enforced between them. You need to insert data to the child table first because it is going to be a long transaction and
data for the parent table will be available in a later stage, which can be inserted as part of the same transaction.
View the Exhibit to examine the commands used to create tables.
Which action would you take to delay the referential integrity checking until the end of the transaction?

Exhibit:
A. Set the constraint to deferred before starting the transaction
B. Alter the constraint to NOVALIDATE state before starting the transaction
C. Enable the resumable mode for the session before starting the transaction
D. Set the COMMIT_WAIT parameter to FORCE_WAIT for the session before starting the transaction
Correct Answer: A

Specifying Constraint State
As part of constraint definition, you can specify how and when Oracle should enforce the constraint.
constraint_state You can use the constraint_state with both inline and out-of-line specification. You can specify the clauses of constraint_state in any order, but you
can specify each clause only once.
DEFERRABLE Clause The DEFERRABLE and NOT DEFERRABLE parameters indicate whether or not, in subsequent transactions, constraint checking can be
deferred until the end of the transaction using the SET CONSTRAINT(S) statement. If you omit this clause, then the default is NOT DEFERRABLE.
Specify NOT DEFERRABLE to indicate that in subsequent transactions you cannot use the SET
CONSTRAINT[S] clause to defer checking of this constraint until the transaction is committed. The checking of a NOT DEFERRABLE constraint can never be
deferred to the end of the transaction.

If you declare a new constraint NOT DEFERRABLE, then it must be valid at the time the CREATE TABLE or ALTER TABLE statement is committed or the
statement will fail.
Specify DEFERRABLE to indicate that in subsequent transactions you can use the SET CONSTRAINT[S] clause to defer checking of this constraint until after the
transaction is committed. This setting in effect lets you disable the constraint temporarily while making changes to the database that might violate the constraint until
all the changes are complete.
You cannot alter the deferability of a constraint. That is, whether you specify either of these parameters, or make the constraint NOT DEFERRABLE implicitly by
specifying neither of them, you cannot specify this clause in an ALTER TABLE statement. You must drop the constraint and re-create it.
QUESTION 38
Automatic Shared Memory Management is disabled for your database instance. You realize that there are cases of SQL statements performing poorly because of
repeated parsing activity, resulting in degradation of performance.
What would be your next step to improve performance?
A. Run the SQL Access Advisor.
B. Run the Memory Advisor for the SGA.
C. Run the Memory Advisor for the PGA.
D. Run the Memory Advisor for the shared pool.
E. Run the Memory Advisor for the buffer cache.
Correct Answer: D

Using the Memory Advisor through OEM
The Memory Advisor can be used only when the automatic memory management (AMM) feature is disabled. The Memory Advisor has three advisors that give
recommendations on: the Shared Pool in the SGA, the Buffer Cache in the SGA, and the PGA.
QUESTION 39
View the Exhibit and examine the parameters. User A executes the following command to update the TRANS table:
SQL> UPDATE B.trans SET tr_amt=tr_amt+500 WHERE c_code=‘C005’;
Before user A issues a COMMIT or ROLLBACK command, user B executes the following command on the TRANS table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE trans MODIFY (tr_type VARCHAR2(3));
What would happen in this scenario?

Exhibit:
A. The ALTER TABLE command modifies the column successfully
B. The DDL operation gets higher priority and transaction for user A is rolled back
C. The ALETER TABLE command waits indefinitely until user A ends the transaction
D. The ALTER TABLE command fails after waiting for 60 seconds due to the resource being busy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which two statements are true regarding the usage of the SQL*LOADER utility? (Choose two.)
A. You can load data into multiple tables during the same load session
B. You can load data from multiple files to a table during the same load session
C. You cannot perform selective data loading based on the values available in the records
D. You can use an export file generated by the EXPDP utility as an input data file to load the data
E. You can load data only if the input file is available on the disk and tape but not a named pipes
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 41
Note the following structures in your database server:

  1. Extents
  2. OS Blocks
  3. Tablespace
  4. Segments
  5. Oracle Data Block
    Which option has the correct arrangement of these structures from the smallest to the largest?
    A. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
    B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    C. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
    D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
    Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15
minutes and then SCOTT receives the following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
Exhibit:

What could be the reason for this error?
A. The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B. There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C. There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D. The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 43
Which two operations can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)
A. Create a view on the table.
B. Create an index on the table.
C. Create a synonym on the table.
D. Add a virtual column to the table.
E. Update the table using the UPDATE statement.
F. Delete rows in the table using the DELETE command.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 44
Which two statements are true regarding listeners? (Choose two.)
A. Listeners use only the TCP/IP protocol.
B. Multiple listener processes can run simultaneously on a host.
C. Multiple database instances can be registered with a single listener.
D. The listener-related errors can be traced only at the administrative level.
E. Only one database instance can be registered with a single listener at any time.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 45
Which three statements are correct about temporary tables? (Choose three.)
A. Indexes and views can be created on temporary tables.
B. Both the data and the structure of temporary tables can be exported.
C. Temporary tables are always created in a user’s temporary tablespace.
D. The data inserted into a temporary table in a session is available to other sessions.
E. Data manipulation language (DML) locks are never acquired on the data of temporary tables.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 46
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restarted the database:

Which two statements are true about these parameters after the database instance is restarted?
(Choose two.)
A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.
B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero until it is changed manually.
D. The lower bounds of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB, respectively.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 47
You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider the steps that will be performed later when you open the
database:

  1. SGA is allocated.
  2. Control file is read.
  3. Redo log files are opened.
  4. Instance recovery is started.
  5. Background processes are started.
  6. Data file headers are checked for consistency.
  7. Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
    Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
    A. 7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
    B. 1, 2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 4
    C. 7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
    D. 1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
A user, who is authenticated externally, logs in to a remote machine and connects to the database instance. What action would you take to ensure that a user
cannot connect to the database instance by merely logging in to a remote machine?
A. Set REMOTE_OS_ROLES to FALSE.
B. Set the OS_ROLES parameter to FALSE.
C. Set the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE.
D. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
Which two statements are true about setting the FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization parameter to a nonzero value? (Choose two.)
A. The MTTR advisor will be disabled
B. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be enabled
C. The value for the LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL initialization parameter will be override the value for FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET
D. The time taken to recover the instance after the crash is always exactly the same as the value given for theFAST_START_MTTR_TARGET initialization
parameter
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 50
Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
Which point describes the Oracle Data Pump utility?

  1. It enables the transfer of data from one database to another
  2. It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration and recovery needs of the entire database
  3. It enables the loading of data from an external file into tables of an Oracle Database
  4. It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 1 and 3
    F. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 51
See the Exhibit:

Identify the component marked with a question mark:
A. Checkpoint (CKPT)
B. Process Monitor (PMON)
C. Archiver Processes (ARcn)

D. Recoverer Process (RECO)
E. Memory Manager Process (MMAN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 52
Your database is configured in shared server mode. However, your senior DBA asks you to modify the value of the PRIVATE_SGA limit in the profile of the users.
What could be the reason for this?
A. To limit the User Global Area (UGA) memory allocated to a session from the SGA
B. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the dispatcher queue of a session in SGA
C. To limit the amount of memory to be used for the request pool in System Global Area (SGA)
D. To control the amount of memory allocated in SGA for the local variables for each shared server process
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
You used the IMMEDIATE option to shutdown your database instance. Consider the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:

  1. SGA is allocated.
  2. Control file is read.
  3. Redo log files are read.
  4. Instance recovery is started.
  5. Background processes are started.
  6. Data files are checked for consistency.
  7. Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
    Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?

A. 7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B. 1, 5, 7, 2, 3, 6; step 4 is not required
C. 7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6 step 4 is not required
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 4; step 7 is not required
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 54
Examine the values for the following initialization parameters:
Which two will be the implications of these values in your database? (Choose two.)
A. The SGA advisor will be disabled
B. The MTTR advisor will be disabled
C. Automatic checkpoint tuning will be disabled
D. Checkpoint information will not be written to the alert log file
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 55
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the CROSSCHECK BACKUP command.

Which statement is true about the output of the command?

A. The backup piece is expired as the new backup is available.
B. The backup piece is expired because the operating-system file was not found.
C. The backup piece is expired because the retention period for the backup has expired.
D. The backup piece is expired because the backup set to which it belongs is not complete.
Correct Answer: B

EXPIRED and AVAILABLE Status
You can view the status of backup sets and copies recorded in the RMAN repository through LIST, vs views, or recovery catalog views (if you use RMAN with a
catalog). Table 2-4 describes the meaning of each status.
The crosscheck command only processes files created on the same device type as the channels used for the crosscheck. The crosscheck command checks only
objects marked available or expired in the repository by examining the files on disk for disk channels or by querying the media manager for sbc channels.
The CROSSCHECK command only processes files created on the same device type as the channels used for the crosscheck. The CROSSCHECK command

checks only objects marked AVAILABLE or EXPIRED in the repository by examining the files on disk for DISK channels or by querying the media manager for sbt
channels.
CROSSCHECK
Purpose
Use the CROSSCHECK command to synchronize the physical reality of backups and copies with their logical records in the RMAN repository.
QUESTION 56
The instance abnormally terminates because of a power outage.
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A. Inactive and current redo log files are required to accomplish recovery

B. Online and archived redo files are required to accomplish instance recovery
C. All redo log entries after the last checkpoint are applied from redo log files to data files
D. All redo log entries recorded in the current log file until the checkpoint position are applied to data files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 57
Which statement is true about loading data using the conventional path of SQLLoader?
A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.
B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY and NOT NULL constraints are checked.
C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.
D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL
Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.
E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 58
View the Exhibit and examine the undo tablespace attributes.
Exhibit:

Your database instance is experiencing a large volume of transactions from non-DBA users in the last one hour. The undo tablespace UNDOTBS1 is full with
transactions and no transaction was committed more than one hour ago. The database has two more undo tablespaces.
What happens to the new DML operations in this scenario?
A. The DML commands will fail
B. The undo data generated by the DML is stored in one of the two other undo tablespace
C. The undo data generated by the DML will overwrite the extents that contain committed undo data
D. The undo data generated by the DML is stored in the SYSTEM undo segment of the SYSTEM tablespace
Correct Answer: A

Tablespaces in the Preconfigured Database (continued)
• TEMP: Your temporary tablespace is used when you execute a SQL statement that requires the creation of temporary segments (such as a large sort or the
creation of an index). Just as each user is assigned a default tablespace for storing created data objects, each user is assigned a temporary tablespace. The best
practice is to define a default temporary tablespace for the database, which is assigned to all newly created users unless otherwise specified. In the preconfigured
database, the TEMP tablespace is specified as the default temporary tablespace. This means that if no temporary tablespace is specified when the user account is
created. Oracle Database assigns this tablespace to the user.
• UNDOTBS1: This is the undo tablespace used by the database server to store undo information. If a database uses Automatic Undo Management, it must have
exactly one active undo tablespace per instance at any given time. This tablespace is created at database creation time.
• USERS: This tablespace is used to store permanent user objects and data. In the preconfigured database, the USERS tablespace is the default tablespace for all
objects created by nonsystem users. For the SYS and SYSTEM users (the system users), the default permanent tablespace remains SYSTEM.
• EXAMPLE: This tablespace contains the sample schema* that can be installed when you create the database. The sample schemas provide a common platform
for examples. Oracle documentation and courseware contain examples based on the sample schemas.

Note: To simplify administration, it is common to have a tablespace for indexes alone.
QUESTION 59
You want to configure and schedule offline database backups to run automatically.
Which tool or utility would you use to achieve this?
A. The XML script
B. The PL/SQL script
C. The DBMS_SCHEDULER package
D. Enterprise Manager to schedule the backup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 60
Which two statements are true regarding undo tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. The database can have more than one undo tablespace
B. The UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is valid in both automatic and manual undo management
C. Undo segments automatically grow and shrink as needed, acting as circular storage buffer for their assigned transactions
D. An undo tablespace is automatically created if the UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is not set and the UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter is set to AUTO during
the database instance start up
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 61
You configured the Flash Recovery Area for your database. The database instance has been started in ARCHIVELOG mode and the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1
parameter is not set.
What will be the implications on the archiving and the location of archive redo log files?

A. Archiving will be disabled because the destination for the redo log files is missing
B. The database instance will shut down and the error details will be logged in the alert log file
C. Archiving will be enabled and the destination for the archived redo log file will be set to the Flash Recovery Area implicitly
D. Archiving will be enabled and the location for the archive redo log file will be created in the default location $ORACLE_HOME/log
Correct Answer: C

LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n
The LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n parameters (where n = 1, 2, 3, … 10) define up to ten archive log destinations.
The parameter integer suffix is defined as the handle displayed by the V$ARCHIVE_DEST dynamic performance view.
Values:
SERVICE
Specifies a standby destination. Oracle Net (IPC or TCP) transmits the archivelog. A standby instance must be associated with the destination. The value
represented by tnsnames_service corresponds to an appropriate service name in tnsnames.ora.
LOCATION
Specifies a local file system destination. You must specify this parameter for at least one destination.
MANDATORY
Specifies that archiving to the destination must succeed before the redo log file can be made available for reuse.
OPTIONAL
Specifies that successful archiving to the destination is not required before the redo log file can be made available for reuse. If the “must succeed count,” set with
LOG_ARCHIVE_MIN_SUCCEED_DEST, is met, the redo logfile is marked for reuse. This is the default.
REOPEN
Specifies the minimum number of seconds before the archiver process (ARCn, foreground, or log writer process) should try again to access a previously failed
destination. Future attempts are made when the next redo log file is archived. If a destination is MANDATORY, then Oracle recommends that you specify a
REOPEN time that reduces the possibility of primary database shutdown due to lack of available online redo log files.
If you do not specify seconds, then the default value is 300
QUESTION 62
Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A. The buffer is currently being accessed
B. The buffer is empty and has not been used

C. The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process
D. The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block contents on the disk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 63
In which situation would you use static database registration for a listener?
A. When multiple databases are to be registered with the listener
B. When DBAs need to connect remotely to start up the database instance
C. When users need to connect the database instance using the host naming method
D. When the database instance that is to be registered with the listener is configured in shared server mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 64
|View the Exhibit to observe the roles assigned to the SL_REP user.

Which statement is true about the assignment of the SELECT_CATALOG_ROLE role to the SL_REP user?
A. The user must enable the role explicitly
B. The user can grant the role to other users
C. The user cannot user the role until the DBA enables it explicitly
D. The user can start using the role immediately without any changes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 65
To make audit information more productive, the DBA executes the following command before starting an audit operation:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRAIL=DB,EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
Which statement is true regarding the audit record generated when auditing starts after restarting the database?
A. It contains only the plan for the SQL statement executed by the user.
B. It contains the SQL text executed by the user and the bind variables used with it.
C. It contains the plan and statistics associated with the SQL statement executed by the user.
D. It contains the plan for the SQL statement executed by the user and the bind variables used with it.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 66
database, DEVDB, to the production database, PRODDB. A database link devdb.us.oracle.com is created between PRODDB and DEVDB. You execute the
following command on the PRODDB database server:
The command fails displaying the following error:
ORA-39001: invalid argument value
ORA-39000: bad dump file specification

ORA-31640: unable to open dump file “/home/oracle/schema/schemas.dat” for read ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
What would you do to overcome the error?
A. Add the user, SYSTEM, to the schemas option.
B. Add the network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com option.
C. Change the dumpfile option to schema.dat@devdb.us.oracle.com.
D. Replace the schemas option with the network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com
E. Replace the dumpfile option with the network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com
Correct Answer: E

The Data Pump import command, impdp, can now use this database link to directly access remote data. The command line parameter NETWORK_LINK points to
the source database via its database link.
When you use the network_link parameter, you directly import from the remote database. There is no export made, and directories are not used.
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)
A. The ADDM requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis.
B. The ADDM runs after each AWR snapshot is collected automatically by MMON.
C. The results of the ADDM analysis are stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).
D. The ADDM analysis provides only diagnostics information but does not provide recommendations.
E. The ADDM calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 68
You are working on an instance started using the SPFILE. You want to move the Flash Recovery Area of your database to a new location. You want the Flashback

log files to be stored in the new location. Given below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:

  1. Shut down the instance.
  2. Change the value of the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to a new value.
  3. Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK OFF command.
  4. Start up the instance and mount the database.
  5. Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON command.
  6. Open the database.
    Select the correct order in which these tasks need to be performed.
    A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
    B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 6, 5
    C. 1, 4, 2, 6, 3, 5
    D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6
    Correct Answer: A

How to change Flash Recovery Area to a new location?
If you need to move the Flash Recovery Area of your database to a new location, invoke SQLPlus to change the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization
parameter.
For example:
ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST=’+disk1’ SCOPE=BOTH SID=’
’;
After you change this parameter, all new Flash Recovery Area files will be created in the new location.
The permanent files (control files and online redolog files), flashback logs and transient files can be left in the old Flash Recovery Area location. The database will
delete the transient files from the old Flash Recovery Area location as they become eligible for deletion.
For the FLASHBACK logfiles to be able to to pick up the new ‘db_recovery_file_dest’ location, the flashback option needs to be toggled off and on.
This can be done like this:

  • Shutdown the Database

  • Startup mount the Database:
    SQL> startup mount;

  • Toggle the Flashback off:
    SQL> alter database flashback off;

  • Toggle the Flashback on:
    SQL> alter database flashback on;

  • Open the Database:
    SQL> alter database open;
    If you need to actually move your current permanent files, transient files, to the new Flash Recovery Area, then follow the following steps:

  1. To move the existing backupsets and archived redo log files, use the following command:
    RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY ARCHIVELOG ALL DELETE INPUT;
    RMAN> BACKUP DEVICE TYPE DISK BACKUPSET ALL DELETE INPUT;
    QUESTION 69
    You are in the middle of a transaction updating a very important table. The machine on which a database was running reboots because of power outage. This
    caused a database instance failure.
    Which statement is true in this situation?
    A. The online redo log files and archived redo log files are required to accomplish the recovery
    B. The uncommitted transaction will be committed at the next startup of the database instance
    C. The uncommitted transaction is rolled back automatically at the next opening of the database
    D. The DBA has to perform the recovery on the database to recover the uncommitted transaction
    Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 70
Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). You executed a command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization
parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32M SCOPE=BOTH;
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds only if Automatic Memory Management is not enabled.
B. The command succeeds, but you need to restart the database for changes to take effect.
C. The command returns an error because the size of the redo log buffer cannot be changed dynamically.
D. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the System Global Area (SGA).
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 71
The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:

  1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
  2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
  3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of the control files.
  4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
  5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
  6. Open the database.
    Identify the correct sequence of steps?
    Exhibit:
    A. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
    B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
    C. 4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
    D. 5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
    Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 72
Examine the following output:
Which two statements about the above index are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is ignored by the query optimizer.
B. It is not used while the index is being rebuilt.
C. The index cannot be rebuilt, and has to be re-created.
D. The index is automatically rebuilt when used the next time.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 73
In a system, large online transaction processing (OLTP) jobs run during the daytime that require a large database buffer cache. In the night, the system supports
batch jobs that require a higher value to be set for the large pool. You must simultaneously configure the memory components to accommodate the peak
requirement.
What would you do to automate this configuration for the memory components with change in mode of working?
A. Set the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter to zero.

B. Set the PRE_PAGE_SGA initialization parameter to TRUE.
C. Set the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET initialization parameter to zero.
D. Set the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter to a nonzero value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 74
You are installing Oracle Database 11g on your server. During the installation Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts you to enter the path of the inventory
directory and also prompts you to specify an operating system group name.
Which statement is true in this case?
A. The ORACLE_BASE parameter is not set.
B. The installation is being performed by the root user.
C. The operating system group that will be specified should have root user as its member.
D. The installation is being performed without the “Create Starter Database” option selected.
E. The operating system group that will be specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 75
View the Exhibit.

You want to create a tablespace to contain objects with block size 16 KB. But while configuring the storage you find that the block size that you can provide is only 8
KB.
Which configuration could have enabled the block selection of 16 KB?
A. Choosing the extent allocation type to uniform
B. Choosing the Segment Space Management option to manual
C. Setting autoextension on for the data file mentioned for the tablespace
D. Setting the DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE parameter for the database instance to a nonzero value
Correct Answer: D

DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE parameter used to specify size of cache in 16K buffers i.e. other than default size specified by using DB_BLOCK_SIZE. This can be used
only when DB_BLOCK_SIZE is not set 16384. Do not set this parameter value to zero if any tablespace has block size as 16KB. This parameter can be set only
when operating system specific minimum block size not restricted greater than 4KB.
QUESTION 76
The TRANS_SUMMARY table contains product-wise transaction details that get updated with every transaction in the system. Each row has cumulative transaction
details of a single product and every product is identified by a product code, which is the primary key.
As part of the archival process, the company wants to transfer the rows in the TRANS_SUMMARY table to the TRANS_SUMMARY_DUP table at the end of every
quarter of the year. Along with existing products, the company deals with many new products during every quarter.
Which method is best suited for this quarterly data transfer?
A. Using the MERGE command
B. Using the SQL*Loader utility
C. Using the correlated UPDATE command
D. Using the INSERT command to perform bulk operation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 77
Which two statements are true regarding a PL/SQL package body? (Choose two.)
A. It cannot be created without a package specification.
B. It cannot invoke subprograms defined in other packages.
C. It can contain only the subprograms defined in the package specification.
D. It can be changed and recompiled without making the package specification invalid.
Correct Answer: AD

Package Specification and Body
Package bodies:
• Are separate from package specifications. Because of this, the code of the body can be changed and recompiled, and other objects that are dependent on the
specification are not marked invalid.
• Contain the code for subprograms defined in the package specification. This is where the work is done. The specification shows how to call subprograms within
the package: the body is the code section
• Cannot be compiled unless the package specification has already been compiled. You can create a specification without a body- but you cannot create a body
without a specification.
• May be wrapped to hide details of the code. Wrap is a stand-alone program that obfuscates PL SQL source code so that you can deliver PL SQL applications
without exposing your source code. For more information about the use of wrap, see the PL/SQL Packages and Types Reference.
QUESTION 78
In your database instance, the user sessions are connected to the database server from the remote machines. You want to achieve the following for these users:

  1. The user account must be locked after four unsuccessful login attempts.
  2. The user must be prompted to change the password at regular intervals.
  3. The user may not have more than three simultaneous sessions.
  4. The user session must automatically be logged off if more than 10 minutes elapsed time used.
    How would you accomplish the above?
    A. By assigning profiles for the users
    B. By implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA)

C. By granting a secure application role to the users
D. By implementing the Database Resource Manager plan
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 79
Observe the information in the columns:
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 80
You are using Enterprise Manager to schedule backups for your database.
Which type of script would be generated by the backup scheduler?

A. XML script
B. PL/SQL script
C. Operating system script
D. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script
Correct Answer: D

• Recovery Manager (RMAN): Oracle tool that provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database or of specific
database files.
QUESTION 81
Note the following functionalities of various background processes:

  1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
  2. Perform recovery at instance startup.
  3. Cleanup unused temporary segments.
  4. Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
  5. Dynamically register database services with listeners.
  6. Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
    Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
    A. Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
    B. System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
    C. Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
    D. Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
    Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 82
Which statement is true about the UNDO_RETENTION parameter when retention guarantee is not enabled?
A. It is the time period after which the undo data becomes obsolete.
B. It is the time period after which the committed undo data would be transferred to a temporary tablespace.
C. It is the minimum time period up to which the committed undo data would be retained if free undo space is available.
D. It is the time period after which the undo data is transferred to the Flash Recovery Area to provide read consistency.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 83
Which statement is true about a whole consistent database backup on a database running in
ARCHIVELOG mode?
Exhibit:

A. The backup will consist of used data blocks only.
B. The database must be shut down to accomplish the backup.
C. The backup can be accomplished without shutting down the database.
D. The backup will contain all database files that have never been backed up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 84
View the Exhibit and examine the user information.
The user has been granted CONNECT and RESOURCE roles and no individual system privileges. The SL_REP user executes this command to create a table:
The PURCHASE_SPACE tablespace already exists in the database.
Which statement describes the effect of the command?
Exhibit:

A. The command executes successfully and creates the table in the USERS tablespace.
B. The command executes successfully and creates the table in the PURCHASE_SPACE tablespace.
C. The command produces an error because the user does not have the privilege to createthe table.
D. The command produces an error because the user does not have quota in the PURCHASE_SPACE tablespace.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 85
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recover from failures in the RAC environment.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
D. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
Correct Answer: AD

Data Recovery Advisor
The Data Recovery Advisor automatically gathers data failure information when an error is encountered. In addition, it can proactively check for failures. In this
mode, it can potentially detect and analyze data failures before a database process discovers the corruption and signals an error. (Note that repairs are always
under human control.)
Data failures can be very serious. For example, if your current los files are missing, you cannot open your database. Some data failures (like block corruptions in
data files) are not catastrophic because they do not take the database down or prevent you from opening the Oracle instance. The Data Recovery Advisor handles
both cases: the one when you cannot start up the database (because required database files are missing, inconsistent, or corrupted) and the one when file
corruptions are discovered during run time.
Supported Database Configurations
In the current release, the Data Recovery Advisor supports single-instance databases. Oracle Real Application Clusters databases are not supported.
The Data Recovery Advisor cannot use blocks or files transferred from a standby database to repair failures on a primary database. Furthermore, you cannot use
the Data Recovery Advisor to diagnose and repair failure on a standby database. However, the Data Recovery Advisor does support failover to a standby database
as a repair option (as mentioned above).
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding the SGA_TARGET initialization parameter? (Choose two.)
A. It can be increased up to the value of the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.
B. Increasing the value of the SGA_TARGET parameter distributes the increased memory among all the autotuned components.
C. Reducing the value of the SGA_TARGET parameter deallocates memory from both autotuned and manually sized components.

D. Increasing the value of SGA_TARGET up to the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE disables the automatic shared memory management feature.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 87
Which statement is true about the Manageability Monitor (MMON) background process?
A. It transfers statistics from memory to disk at regular intervals.
B. It coordinates the rebalance activity for disk groups when ASM is used.
C. It communicates with the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance on behalf of the database instance.
D. It performs dynamic memory management when Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled for the database instance.
Correct Answer: A

Other Processes
There are several other background processes that might be running. These can include the following:
The Manageability Monitor process (MMON) performs various manageability-related background tasks, for example:

  • Issuing alerts whenever a given metrics violates its threshold value
  • Taking snapshots by spawning additional process (MMOX slaves)
  • Capturing statistics value for SQL objects that have been recently modified
    The Lightweight Manageability Monitor process (MMXL) performs frequent tasks related to lightweight manageability, such as session history capture and metrics
    computation.
    The Memory Manager process (MMAN) is used for internal database tasks. It manages automatic memory management processing to help allocate memory where
    it is needed dynamically in an effort to avoid out-of-memory conditions or poor buffer cache performance.
    QUESTION 88
    View the Exhibit1, which shows the options that are selected to create the user SL_REP.
    View the Exhibit2 and examine the contents of DATABASE_PROPERTIES.
    Which two statements are true regarding this user? (Choose two.)

Exhibit1 (exhibit):
Exhibit2 (exhibit):

A. The user is authenticated by the operating system.
B. The objects created by the user are placed in the USERS tablespace.
C. The user does not require quota on the TEMP tablespace to perform sort operations.
D. The user is forced to change the password at the first login to the database instance.
E. The objects created by the user in future are unlocked to be accessed by all the users in the database by default.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 89
Which two statements are true regarding transactions in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C. More than one transaction cannot share the same extent in the undo tablespace.
D. The transactions use system undo segment to store undo data if all the segments in the undo tablespace are used.
Correct Answer: AB

Segments
The level of logical database storage above an extent is called a segment. A segment is a set of extents that are allocated for a certain logical structure. Different
types of segments include:
• Data segments: Each nonclustered. non-index-organized table has a data segment, with the exception of external tables, global temporary tables, and partitioned
tables in which each table has one or more segments. All of the table’s data is stored in the extents of its data segment. For a partitioned table, each partition has a
data segment. Each cluster has a data segment. The data of every table in the cluster is stored in the cluster’s data segment.
• Index segments: Each index has an index segment that stores all of its data. For a partitioned index, each partition has an index segment.
• Undo segments: One UNDO tablespace is created for each database instance. This tablespace contains numerous undo segments to temporarily store undo
information. The information in an undo segment is used to generate read-consistent database information and. dining database recovery, to roll back uncommitted
transactions for users.
• Temporary segments: Temporary segments are created by the Oracle database when a SQL statement needs a temporary work area to complete execution.
When the statement finishes execution, the temporary segment’s extents are returned to the instance for future use. Specify either a default temporary tablespace
for every user, or a default temporary tablespace that is used database-wide.
Transactions and Undo Data
When a transaction starts, it is assigned to an undo segment. Throughout the life of the transaction, when data is changed, the original (before the change) values
are copied into the undo segment. You can see which transactions are assigned to which undo segments by checking the V$TRANSACTION dynamic performance
view.
Undo segments are specialized segments that are automatically created by the instance as needed to support transactions. Like all segments, undo segments are
made up of extents, which, in turn, consist of data blocks. Undo segments automatically grow and shrink as needed, acting as a circular storage buffer for their
assigned transactions.

Transactions fill extents in their undo segments until a transaction is completed or all space is consumed. If an extent fills up and more space is needed, the
transaction acquires that space from the next extent in the segment. After all extents have been consumed, the transaction either wraps around back into the first
extent or requests a new extent to be allocated to the undo segment.
QUESTION 90
You are using flat files as the data source for one of your data warehousing applications. To optimize the application performance, you plan to move the data from
the flat files to clustered tables in an Oracle database. While migrating the data, you want to have minimal impact on the database performance and optimize the
data load operation. Which method would you use to load data into the Oracle database?
A. Use the external table population.
B. Use the Oracle Data Pump export and import utility.
C. Use the conventional path data load of the SQL*Loader utility.
D. Use the INSERT INTO…SELECT command to load the data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 91
Given below is a list of scenarios:

  1. A user terminates his session abnormally.
  2. The connection between the server and the client application terminates because of a network failure.
  3. A schema is accidentally dropped.
  4. The tablespace is accidentally dropped from the database.
  5. The hard disk gets corrupted and the data files in the disk are lost.
  6. The database instance abnormally shuts down because of power failure.
    Which scenarios require DBA intervention to perform recovery?
    A. 1, 3, and 6
    B. 4, 5, and 6
    C. 3, 4, and 5
    D. 1, 2, and 6
    Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true regarding B-tree index? (Choose two.)
A. The leaf blocks in the index are doubly linked.
B. The leaf node stores a bitmap for each key value.
C. The rows with NULL value in key columns also have entries in the index.
D. The deletion of a row from the table causes a logical deletion in index leaf block and the space becomes available for the new leaf entry.
Correct Answer: AD

B-Tree Index
Structure of a B-tree Index
At the top of the index is the root, which contains entries that point to the next level in the index. At the next level are branch blocks, which in turn point to blocks at
the next level in the index. At the lowest level are the leaf nodes, which contain the index entries that point to rows in the table. The leaf blocks are doubly linked to
facilitate the scanning of the index in an ascending as well as descending order of key values.
Format of Index Leaf Entries
An index entry has the following components:
• Entry header: Stores the number of columns and locking information
• Key column length-value pairs: Define the size of a column in the key followed by the value for the column (The number of such pairs is the maximum of the
number of columns in the index.)
• ROWID: Row ID of a row that contains the key values
B-Tree Index (continued)
Index Leaf Entry Characteristics
In a B-tree index on a nonpartitioned table:
• Key values are repeated if there are multiple rows that have the same key value unless the index is compressed
• There is no index entry corresponding to a row that has all key columns that are NULL. Therefore, a WHERE clause specifying NULL always results in a full table
scan.
• A restricted ROWID is used to point to the rows of the table because all rows belong to the same segment

Effect of DML Operations on an Index
The Oracle server maintains all the indexes when DML operations are carried out on a table. Here is an of the effect of a DML command on an index:
• Insert operations result in the insertion of an index entry in the appropriate block.
• Deleting a row results only in a logical deletion of the index entry. The space used by the deleted row is available for new sequential leaf entries.
• Updates to the key columns result in a logical delete and an insert to the index. The PCTFREE setting has no effect on the index except at the time of creation. A
new entry may be added to an index block even if it has less space than that specified by PCTFREE.
Types of Indexes
These are several types of index structures that are available depending on your needs. Two of the most common are:
• B-tree index

  • Default index type; in the form of a balanced tree

• Bitmap index:

  • Has a bitmap for each distinct value indexed
  • Each bit position represents a row that may or may not contain the indexed value.
  • Best for low-cardinality columns
    QUESTION 93
    You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. The database is open, and you plan to perform Recovery Manager (RMAN) backups.
    Which three statements are true about these backups? (Choose three.)
    A. The backups would be consistent.
    B. The backups would be inconsistent.
    C. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
    D. The backups would be possible only if the database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
    E. The backups need to be restored and the database has to be recovered in case of a media failure.
    Correct Answer: BCE

•Recovery Manager (RMAX): Oracle Tool that provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database or of specific
database files
QUESTION 94
View the Exhibit and examine the output of the query.

What do you infer from this?
A. The SGA_TARGET is a static parameter.
B. The instance is started, but the database is not yet open.
C. The server parameter file (SPFILE) was used to start the instance.
D. The SGA_TARGET parameter does not have any effect on the database instance until the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter is specified.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 95
The session of user SCOTT receives the following error after executing an UPDATE command on the EMP table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-00060: deadlock detected while waiting for resource
On investigation, you find that a session opened by user JIM has a transaction that caused the deadlock.
Which two statements are true regarding the session of SCOTT in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The session is terminated after receiving the error and JIM can continue with his transaction.

B. SCOTT should perform a COMMIT or ROLLBACK to allow JIM to continue with his transaction.
C. The session is rolled back after receiving the error and JIM can continue with his transaction.
D. SCOTT has to reexecute the last command in the transaction after he commits the transaction.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 96
Identify the two situations in which you use the alert log file in your database to check the details. (Choose two.)

A. Running a query on a table returns “ORA-600: Internal Error.”
B. Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-01722: invalid number.”
C. Creating a table returns “ORA-00955: name is already used by an existing object.”
D. Inserting a value in a table returns “ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.PK_TECHP) violated.”
E. Inserting a row in a table returns “ORA-00060: deadlock detected while waiting for resource.”
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 97
You are working on a database that must be functioning 24 hours a day, 7 days a week. The database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Which two options do you have for performing user-managed backups? (Choose two.)
A. You can perform consistent backups only.

B. You can perform a complete database backup without shutting down the database instance.
C. You can back up data files only when all data files have the same SCN recorded in the control file.
D. You can back up only those data files whose headers are frozen by using ALTER TABLESPACE BEGIN BACKUP or ALTER DATABASE BEGIN BACKUP
commands.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 98
User SCOTT executes the following command on the EMP table but has not issued COMMIT, ROLLBACK, or any data definition language (DDL) command:
SCOTT has opened another session to work with the database instance.
Which three operations would wait when issued in SCOTT’s second session? (Choose three.)
A. LOCK TABLE emp IN SHARE MODE;
B. LOCK TABLE emp IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;
C. UPDATE emp SET sal=sal*1.2 WHERE job=‘MANAGER’
D. INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES (1289,‘Harry’);
E. SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE job=‘CLERK’ FOR UPDATE OF empno;
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 99
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database. You configured the database to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. You must shut down the database instance to perform the backups.
B. You must configure the flash recovery area (fast recovery area) for the database.
C. You can perform complete database backups without closing the database.
D. All the previous closed database backups including control files become invalid after you configure the database to ARCHIVELOG mode.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 100
View the Exhibit to examine the output of the DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS view.
After 30 minutes, you executed the following command:
Exhibit:

What could be the reason for the elimination of the other rows in the output?
A. An Automatic Workload Repository snapshot has been taken recently.
B. The non-threshold-based alerts are transferred to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
C. The threshold alerts conditions are cleared and the alerts are transferred to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
D. The threshold alerts related to database metrics are permanently stored in DBA_ALERT_HISTORY but not the threshold alerts related to instance metrics.
Correct Answer: C

Alert Types and Clearing Alerts
There are two kinds of server-generated alerts: threshold and nonthreshold.
Most server-generated alerts are configured by setting a warning and critical threshold values on database metrics. You can define thresholds for more than 120
metrics, including the following:
• Physical Reads Per Sec
• User Commits Per Sec
• SQL Service Response Time
Except for the Tablespace Space Usage metric, which is database related, the other metrics are instance related. Threshold alerts are also referred to as stateful
alerts, which are automatically cleared when an alert condition clears. Stateful alerts appear in DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS and. when cleared, go to
DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
Other server-generated alerts correspond to specific database events such as ORA- * errors, “Snapshot too old” errors, Recovery Area Low On Free Space, and
Resumable Session Suspended. These are non-threshold-based alerts, also referred to as stateless alerts. Stateless alerts go directly to the history table. Clearing
a stateless alert makes sense only in the Database Control environment because Database Control stores stateless alerts in its own repository.
QUESTION 101
All the database users are presently connected to the database instance and working. The HR user has opened three database sessions and executed the
following command in one of his sessions:
The SYS user opens a new session after HR executed the above commands.
Which sessions can see the effect of the UPDATE and DELETE commands?
A. All sessions of the HR user only
B. All sessions of the HR user and the SYS user
C. The session of the HR user that executed the commands
D. All the sessions for which the database users have access privilege to the PERSONS table
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 102
Which two statements are true about checkpointing? (Choose two.)
A. The checkpoint frequency decreases with the smaller redo log file size.
B. It ensures that all committed data is written to the data files during normal shutdown.
C. The frequent full checkpoint in a database can cause the overall degradation of the database performance.
D. It prompts the Checkpoint (CKPT) process to write data to the data files and redo information to the online redo log files.
Correct Answer: BC

Checkpoint Process (CKPT)
A checkpoint is a data structure that defines a system change number (SCN) in the redo thread of a database. Checkpoints are recorded in the control file and in
each data file header. They are a crucia element of recovery.
When a checkpoint occurs, Oracle Database must update the headers of all data files to record the details of the checkpoint. This is done by the CKPT process.
The CKPT process does not write blocks to disk; DBWw always performs that work. The SCNs recorded in the file headers guarantee that all changes made to
database blocks prior to that SCN have been written to disk.
The statistic DDWR checkpoints displayed by the SYSTEM_STATISTICS monitor in Oracle Enterprise Manager indicate the number of checkpoint requests that
have completed.
QUESTION 103
Which two statements are true regarding the Oracle Data Pump export and import operations? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot export data from a remote database.
B. You can rename tables during an import operation.
C. You can overwrite existing dump files during an export operation.
D. You can compress the data during export but not the metadata because it is not supported.
Correct Answer: BC

• Data Pump: Enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another (For example, you may want to export a table and import it into another
database.)
Oracle Data Pump: Benefits
The EXCLUDE, INCLUDE, and CONTENT parameters are used for fine-grained object and data selection.
You can specify die database version for objects to be moved (using the VERSION parameter) to create a dump file set that is compatible with a previous release of
the Oracle database that supports Data Pump.
You can use the PARALLEL parameter to specify the maximum number of threads of active execution servers operating on behalf of the export job.
You can estimate how much space an export job would consume (without actually performing the export) by using the ESTIMATE_ONLY parameter.
Network mode enables you to export from a remote database directly to a dump file set. This can be done by using a database link to the source system.
During import, you can change the target data file name, scheme, and tablespace.
In addition you can specify a percentage of data to be sampled and unloaded from the source database when performing a Data Pump export. This can be done by
specifying the SAMPLE parameter.
You can use the COMPRESSION parameter to indicate whether the metadata should be compressed in the export dump file so that it consumes less disk space. If
you compress the metadata, it is automatically uncompressed during import.
QUESTION 104
Which of these is true about undo tablespace?
A. Undo tablespace is a temporary tablespace.
B. Undo tablespace has only one datafile
C. Undotablespace has a datafile which is reused in cyclic manner
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)
A. DDL statements can be audited.
B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than once.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 106
A database user SMITH tries to query the V S E S S I O N v i e w a n d f a i l s t o a c c e s s i t a s f o l l o w s : W h i c h a r e t h e t w o p o s s i b l e s o l u t i o n s t o e n a b l e S M I T H t o q u e r y t h e d a t a i n V SESSION view and fails to access it as follows: Which are the two possible solutions to enable SMITH to query the data in V SESSIONviewandfailstoaccessitasfollows:WhicharethetwopossiblesolutionstoenableSMITHtoquerythedatainVSESSION? (Choose two.)
A. granting SELECT privilege to SMITH on VKaTeX parse error: Expected group after '_' at position 51: …e to SMITH on V_̲SESSION
C. asking the user SMITH to run the catalog.sql script

D. granting SELECT privilege to SMITH on V F I X E D T A B L E S E . s e t t i n g t h e O 7 D I C T I O N A R Y A C C E S S I B I L I T Y p a r a m e t e r t o T R U E F . c r e a t i n g a v i e w b a s e d o n V FIXED_TABLES E. setting the O7_DICTIONARY_ACCESSIBILITY parameter to TRUE F. creating a view based on V FIXEDTABLESE.settingtheO7DICTIONARYACCESSIBILITYparametertoTRUEF.creatingaviewbasedonVSESSION and granting SELECT privilege to SMITH on the view that was created
Correct Answer: BF

Incorrect:
Not A:
v s e s s i o n i s a s y n o n y m o f v session is a synonym of v sessionisasynonymofvsession.
Oracle v$ views are named V
V I E W N A M E a n d t h e y h a v e s y n o n y m s i n f o r m a t V VIEWNAME and they have synonyms in format V VIEWNAMEandtheyhavesynonymsinformatVVIEWNAME and you can’t give privilage on a synonym.
Note:
*
ORA-00942: table or view does not exist
Cause: The table or view entered does not exist, a synonym that is not allowed here was used, or a view was referenced where a table is required. Existing user
tables and views can be listed by querying the data dictionary. Certain privileges may be required to access the table. If an application returned this message, the
table the application tried to access does not exist in the database, or the application does not have access to it.
Action: Check each of the following:
the spelling of the table or view name.
that a view is not specified where a table is required.
that an existing table or view name exists.
Contact the database administrator if the table needs to be created or if user or application privileges are required to access the table.
Also, if attempting to access a table or view in another schema, make certain the correct schema is referenced and that access to the object is granted.
QUESTION 107
View Exhibit1 and Exhibit2 to examine the current memory allocation and parameter settings, respectively. Why are advisors not available for the shared pool and
the buffer cache?
09 (exhibit):

10 (exhibit):

A. because the DB_CACHE_ADVICE parameter is set to OFF
B. because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is disabled for the database instance
C. because Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for the database instance
D. because the values for the DB_CACHE_SIZE and SHARED_POOL_SIZE parameters were not set initially
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 108
You receive complaints from users regarding the high waiting time for their transactions. On investigation, you find that some users are not committing their
transactions though they are not performing any activity for a long time. As a result, SQL statements need to wait for rowlevel locks. Which two actions could you
take to prevent this locking problem in the future? (Choose two.)
A. Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profile assigned to the blocking users.
B. Use Database Resource Manager to automatically log out sessions that block others and are idle
C. Set the limit in the profile of blocking users to control the number of blocks to be accessed in a session.
D. Decrease the maximum number of interested transaction list (ITL) slots for the segments on which the blocking user performs the transaction.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 109
Your database instance is functional for the past one month. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot retention is set to 7 and the
STATISTICS_LEVEL initialization parameter is set to TYPICAL. You receive a complaint about the poor performance of the database between 7 PM and 9 PM of
the previous day. Choose two actions any of which can be referred to first to diagnose the problem. (Choose two.)
A. Use the Active Session History report.
B. Use the AWR Compare Periods report.
C. Use an ADDM analysis between 7 PM and 9 PM of the previous day.
D. Use the AWR Compare Period report between 7 PM and 9 PM of the previous day.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 110
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema
B. The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information
C. The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views
D. The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 111
Identify three situations in which you would NOT be able to drop a tablespace. (Choose three.)
A. when the tablespace is online
B. when the tablespace has segments with data in it
C. when the tablespace is a default permanent tablespace for the database
D. when the tablespace contains a table that is currently being used by transactions
E. when the tablespace contains undo data that is needed to rollback an uncommitted transaction
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 112

You plan to configure the new Oracle Database 11g installation by performing these tasks:

  • Use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as the storage option.
  • Use Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Control to manage the database.
  • Provide the same password for SYS, SYSTEM, SYSMAN, and DBSNMP accounts during the installation.
  • Configure the database to send email notifications.
    Some tools available to you for installation are:
    1: Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)
    2: Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
    3: Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
    4: Oracle Net Configuration Assistant
    Which tools would you use for this installation?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 1 and 2
    D. 3 and 4
    E. 1,2 and 4
    Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 113
Which three descriptions are correct about the effects of the TRUNCATE command on a table? (Choose three.)
A. The corresponding indexes for the table are also truncated.
B. Delete triggers on the table are fired during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.
C. The child table is truncated when the TRUNCATE command is applied on the parent table.
D. The highwater mark (HWM) is set to point to the first usable data block in the table segment.
E. No undo or very little undo data is generated during the execution of the TRUNCATE command.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 114
You suspect unauthorized data manipulation language (DML) operations on a particular table. You want to track users who are performing the transactions and the
values used in the transactions. You also plan to transfer these values to another table for analysis. How would you achieve this?
A. by using triggers
B. by using Data Pump
C. by using external tables
D. by using anonymous PL/SQL blocks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 115
You execute a command to resize a data file, sales.dbf, of size 200 MB in your database:
ALTER DATABASE DATAFILE ‘/remorse/sales.dbf’ RESIZE 150M;
Which statement is true about this command?
A. The command must be issued in MOUNT state.
B. The command succeeds only if the data file is offline.
C. The command must be issued when the database is in the archivelog mode.
D. The command succeeds if no extent in the tablespace is currently allocated above the 150 MB boundary of the file.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 116
You executed the following commands to find the location of the alert log file:

Where is the alert log file stored? (Choose all that apply.)
A. in the BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST location; in text format
B. in the BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST location; in XML format
C. in the BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST location; in both text and XML format
D. in the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/alert directory; in text format
E. in the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/alert directory; in XML format
F. in the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST/diag/rdbms/orcl/orcl/alert directory; in both text and XML format
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 117
Identify the logical structure that will never have more than one data segment created for it.
A. external table
B. partitioned table
C. partitioned index
D. nonclustered table
E. global temporary table

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 118
View the Exhibit and examine the command used to create the ZONEDATA table. The table contains a million rows for zonewise analysis in the DSS system. DML
operations are performed very rarely on the table. You decide to prepare an index on the ZONE column to enhance the performance of the queries on the ZONE
column.
Which type of index would you select in this scenario?
Exhibit:
A. Bitmap index
B. Reverse key index
C. Normal BTree index
D. Functionbased index
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 119
The user HR owns the EMP table. The user HR grants privileges to the user SCOTT by using this command:

Which statement is true after HR issues the REVOKE command?
A. The command fails because SCOTT still has privileges.
B. The command succeeds and privileges are revoked from JIM.
C. The command fails because HR cannot revoke the privileges from JIM.
D. The command succeeds and only HR has the privilege to perform the SELECT, INSERT, and UPDATE operations on the EMP table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 120
Which statement describes the effect on an index, when the indexed column for the rows is updated in the base table?
A. An update in a leaf row takes place.
B. The index becomes invalid after the update.
C. The leaf block containing the row to be updated is marked as invalid.
D. A row in the leaf block of the index for the key value is logically deleted and a new leaf row is inserted.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 121

You are managing an Oracle Database 11g database running in ARCHIVELOG mode. The Flash Recovery Area is specified as the destination for the archived
redo log files. You notice this warning in the alert log file:
ORA19815: WARNING: db_recovery_file_dest_size of 3221225472 bytes is 100.00% used, and has 0 remaining bytes available.
What would you do to reclaim the used space in the Flash Recovery Area? (Choose two.)
A. Back up the Flash Recovery Area.
B. Decrease the retention time for the database backup and flashback log files.
C. Manually delete all the archived log files from the Flash Recovery Area by using operating system (OS) commands.
D. Manually delete all the expired backup sets from the Flash Recovery Area by using operating system (OS) commands.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 122
Which tablespaces are mandatory in an Oracle database for it to be operational? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Undo tablespace
B. USERS tablespace
C. SYSAUX tablespace
D. SYSTEM tablespace
E. Temporary tablespace
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 123
View the Exhibit and examine the initialization parameter settings.

Which three initialization parameters are to be set manually as they are not automatically tuned? (Choose three.)
A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 124
The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. Examine the initialization parameters and their values set to enable archiving on your database server:

Which statement is true regarding the archived redo log files?
A. It will be created on the local file system.
B. It will be created only in the Flash Recovery Area.
C. It will be created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs.
D. It will be created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 125
In which situations does the Oracle Data Pump use external tables and not the direct path load while exporting a table? (Choose all that apply.)
A. if a table is not in a cluster
B. if a table has an active trigger
C. if a table has an encrypted column
D. if a table has a column of data type LONG defined on it
E. if a table has a referential integrity constraint defined on it
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 126

In which three situations does the Oracle Data Pump use external tables and not the direct path load while exporting a table? (Choose three.)
A. If a table is not in a cluster
B. If a table has an active trigger
C. If a table has an encrypted column
D. If a table has a VARCHAR2 column in it
E. If a table has a referential integrity constraint defined on it
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 127
You have to create a table, STUDENTS, with the columns: STUDENT_ID, STUDENT_NAME, DATE_OF_BIRTH, and COURSE_ID.
The following constraints have to be enforced on this table:

  1. Each student must be uniquely identifiable by the STUDENT_ID.
  2. STUDENT_ID column should not be left blank.
  3. The student should not be less than 15 years of age.
  4. The student can only take a course that is specified in the COURSE table in the database.
    Which three constrains must be explicitly enforced on this table? (Choose three.)
    A. check constraint on the COURSE_ID column
    B. foreign key constraint on the COURSE_ID column
    C. check constraint on the DATE_OF_BIRTH column
    D. unique key constraint on the STUDENT_ID column
    E. not null constraint on the DATE_OF_BIRTH column
    F. primary key constraint on the COURSE_ID column
    Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 128
What function is performed by the System Monitor (SMON) background process in a database instance?
A. It performs recovery when a user process fails.
B. It performs instance recovery when failed database instance is restarted.
C. It monitors memory space allocation only within the System Global Area (SGA).
D. It monitors memory space allocation within the SGA and the Program Global Area (PGA).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 129
You created a profile APP_USER and assigned it to the users. After a month, you decide to drop the profile.
Some user sessions are currently connected to the database instance and are using the APP_USER profile.
This command is used to drop the profile:
SQL> DROP PROFILE app_user;
Which statement describes the result?
A. The command produces an error.
B. The profile is dropped and current user sessions use the DEFAULT profile immediately.
C. The profile is dropped, the sessions are terminated, and the subsequent user sessions use the DEFAULT profile.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 130

Your database is down. You log in as the user SYS and issue the following command:
SQL>STARTUP
Which steps occur and in what order as a result of executing this command?
A. Only the instance is started.
B. Instance is started and then database is mounted but not opened.
C. Instance is started, then the database is mounted and finally opened.
D. Instance is started, then the database is opened and finally mounted.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 131
A database user SMITH tries to query the V S E S S I O N v i e w a n d f a i l s t o a c c e s s i t a s f o l l o w s : W h i c h s o l u t i o n w i l l e n a b l e S M I T H t o q u e r y t h e d a t a i n V SESSION view and fails to access it as follows: Which solution will enable SMITH to query the data in V SESSIONviewandfailstoaccessitasfollows:WhichsolutionwillenableSMITHtoquerythedatainVSESSION?
A. granting SELECT privilege to SMITH on VKaTeX parse error: Expected group after '_' at position 51: …e to SMITH on V_̲SESSION
C. asking the user SMITH to run the catalog.sql script

D. granting SELECT privilege to SMITH on V$FIXED_TABLES
E. setting the O7_DICTIONARY_ACCESSIBILITY parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 132
You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider the steps that will be performed later when you open the
database:

  1. SGA is allocated.
  2. Control file is read.
  3. Redo log files are read.
  4. Instance recovery is started.
  5. Background processes are started.
  6. Data file headers are checked for consistency.
  7. Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
    Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
    A. 7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
    B. 1, 2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 4
    C. 7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
    D. 1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
    Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 133
Which is true about enabling AUTOEXTEND for data files?
A. It can be enabled for a new data file that is added to a tablespace only if the existing data files in that tablespace have autoextend enabled.

B. It can be enabled only for data files in non-OMF tablespaces.
C. It can be enabled only for data files only in smallfile tablespaces.
D. It can be enabled only for data files only in biglfile tablespaces.
E. It can be enabled for an existing data file in a tablespace by using the ALTER TABLESPACE command.
Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/dfiles003.htm#ADMIN11424
QUESTION 134
Which two are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose two.)
A. Stateful alerts are preserved across instance restarts.
B. They are automatically written to alert.log.
C. By default, an email is sent by the database instance for each server-generated alert.
D. Stateless alerts can be found in DBA_OUTSTANDING_ALERTS.
E. By default, a server-generated alert is raised for each tablespace that has 85 % or more of its space used.
Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/monitoring001.htm#ADMIN11242
QUESTION 135
Which two are true about roles? (Choose two.)
A. A secure application role can be set only by its associated PL/SQL package.
B. A role can be granted a combination of system and object privileges and other roles.
C. Roles are owned by SYSTEM.
D. The CONNECT role is granted automatically to a user when it is created.
E. The RESOURCE role is granted the CREATE SESSION privilege.
Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/network.112/e36292/app_devs.htm#DBSEG005
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm
QUESTION 136
Your database is configured in archivelog mode.
The USERS01 tablespace is currently online.
You are required to take the tablespace offline.
Which clause or clauses ensure that no media recovery is required when the tablespace is brought back online?
A. either the NORMAL or the IMMEDIATE clause
B. only the IMMEDIATE clause
C. either the NORMAL or the TEMPORARY clause
D. only the TEMPORARY clause
E. only the NORMAL clause
Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tspaces005.htm#ADMIN11377
QUESTION 137
Your DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE is 8G.
Currently, 5G of the space is used of which 4G consists of obsolete backups.
You execute this command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET db_recovery_fle_dest_size=2G;
What is the outcome?
A. It changes DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE to 2G and deletes the obsolete backups.
B. It changes DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE to 5G.
C. It fails because DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE is a static parameter.
D. It fails because the new size is less than 5G.

E. It changes DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE to 2G without deleting valid backups.
Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/setup005.htm
QUESTION 138
You are installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure by using the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI).
You select the “Install and Configure Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server’ option.
Which task is performed by OUI as part of this installation?

A. creation of privileged operating system group that are used for OS authentication.
B. creation of an ASM disk group and registration of ASM components with Oracle Restart
C. creation of a general purpose database
D. creation and configuration of Enterprise Managed Cloud Control on the server
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/LADBI/oraclerestart.htm#LADBI999
QUESTION 139
Which three are true about auditing? (Choose three.)
A. DDL statements can be audited when they fail to execute.
B. Audit of the use of system privileges can be enabled for individual database users.
C. Auditing is active only when the database is OPEN. D. All Oracle auditing operations occur by default.

E. Audit records are always stored in the database.
F. DML statements can be audited when they execute successfully.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 140
When would you use memory advisors?
A. to get a recommendation whether Automatic Memory Management (AMM) or Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) should be implemented.
B. to determine the impact of adding or reducing memory on DB Time
C. to generate memory-related alerts when memory demand exceeds a specified percentage
D. to determine the impact of adding memory on hard parse count
E. to determine the impact of adding memory on logical and physical reads
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 141
Which two are true about external tables? (Choose two.)
A. They can be stored in Oracle Automatic Storage Management File System (Oracle ACFS)
B. They can always be updated using SQL
C. They have extents
D. They support the ORACLE_DATAPUMP access driver.
E. They support all DML operations.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 142
Your database is using Automatic Memory Management.
Which two SGA components must be managed manually? (Choose two)
A. keep buffer pool
B. shared pool
C. redo log buffer
D. default buffer cache
E. large pool
Correct Answer: AC

The SGA_MAX_SIZE initialization parameter specifies the maximum size of the System Global Area for the lifetime of the instance. You can dynamically alter the
initialization parameters affecting the size of the buffer caches, shared pool, large pool, Java pool, and streams pool but only to the extent that the sum of these
sizes and the sizes of the other components of the SGA (fixed SGA, variable SGA, and redo log buffers) does not exceed the value specified by SGA_MAX_SIZE.
QUESTION 143
Which two are true about roles? (Choose two.)
A. A role can be created only by a user with the SYSDBA privilege.
B. A role can be granted only multiple system privileges not multiple object privileges.
C. A role can be granted to another role.
D. A role can be password-protected.
E. Only one default role can be granted to a user.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 144
In your database:
SGA_TARGET = 270M
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET = 90M
The MEMORY_TARGET and MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameters are currently not configured.
You execute the command:
ALTER SYSTEM SET MEMORY_TARGET = 400M;
What is the outcome and why?
A. The execution fails because SGA_TARGET and PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET are already configured
B. The execution is successful and automatic memory management is enabled
C. The execution is successful but does not enable automatic memory management because the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter must be configured to a value
greater than MEMORY_TARGET
D. The execution fails because the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter must be configured to 400M before configuring the MEMORY_TARGET parameter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 145
Which two are true about Optimizer Statistics? (Choose two.)
A. They are automatically updated when DDL statements execute
B. They can be gathered by executing the PL/SQL procedures in the DBMS_STATS package
C. They are gathered by the Manageability Monitor (MMON) background process
D. They provide information to the Optimizer so that it can determine optimal execution plans for SQL statements
E. They can be used to determine the events on which a database instance waited
F. They do not persist across instance restarts
Correct Answer: BD

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/bi-datawarehousing/twp-optimizer-stats-concepts-110711-1354477.pdf
QUESTION 146
Which three are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. AWR data is stored in the SYSTEM tablespace
B. Its collection level is determined by the value of the STATISTICS_LEVEL database parameter
C. It is the foundation for the self-managing infrastructure
D. The taking of AWR snapshots cannot be disabled
E. By default, AWR snapshots are taken every 60 minutes
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 147
Which two are true about the Fast Recovery Area (FRA)? (Choose two.)
A. Space management in the FRA is controlled by the database backup retention policy
B. It must reside on the same file system as the database data files
C. A database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode to use the FRA
D. It should be larger than the database
E. Only consistent backups can be stored in the FRA
Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/setup005.htm
QUESTION 148
Which two affect the time taken for instance recovery? (Choose two.)

A. size of archivelogs
B. size of existing RMAN backupsets
C. UNDO_RETENTION value
D. size of UNDO tablespace
E. FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET value
F. size of redo logs
Correct Answer: EF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A97630_01/server.920/a96533/instreco.htm
QUESTION 149
Where is backup metadata stored for use by Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. in the SYSTEM tablespace
B. in the control file
C. in the SPFILE
D. in the SYSAUX tablespace
E. in the diagnostic destination files
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMQS/GUID-E1DF66FB-5DAB-4267-8645-215C3EBAB1CA.htm#ADMQS09114
QUESTION 150
Table EMP resides in the USERS tablespace.
Examine this command:
SQL> DROP TABLE emp PURGE;
Which two methods would you use to recover EMP? (Choose two.)
A. Flashback Transaction Backout

B. re-creating the table and reinserting the rows
C. Flashback Drop
D. Flashback Table
E. performing a tablespace point in time recovery of USERS
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 151
Examine these commands and their output:
A power failure occurs. The instance is restarted and this query is executed.
SQL> SELECT ename FROM emp;

What is the outcome?
A. No rows are returned
B. Only Adam and Alan are displayed
C. Adam, Alan, Ben, and Bryan are displayed
D. Only Adam, Alan, and Bryan are displayed
E. Only Adam, Alan, and Ben are displayed
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 152
Your database is open in ARCHIVELOG mode.
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST is set to Fast Recovery Area (FRA) and it is 100% full when a log switch takes place.
What is the outcome?
A. The archivelog entries are made in the diagnostic destination and when space is available, new archivelogs are generated
B. Obsolete backups are automatically deleted and new archivelogs are generated
C. All active sessions hang until the database administrator (DBA) makes space available in the FRA
D. No archivelogs are generated
E. All active sessions are disconnected and their transactions rolled back
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 153
Which four are true about the tools used to administer Oracle databases? (Choose four.)
A. SQL *Plus can be used to create databases
B. DBCA can be used to upgrade databases

C. RMAN can be used to start up Oracle instances
D. SQL *Plus can be used to start up Oracle instances
E. SRVCTL can be used to shut down Oracle instances
F. Data Pump can be used to load data from text files
Correct Answer: ABCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/win.920/a95490/tools.htm
QUESTION 154
Examine these components:

  1. Execution plan for a non-embedded SQL statement
  2. Local, global, and package variables for a session
  3. Execution plan for a SQL statement contained in a PL/SQL program unit
  4. Results of executed queries and query fragments
  5. PL/SQL function result sets
    Which of these are stored in the shared SQL area?
    A. 1, 2, 4, and 5
    B. 1, 2, and 3
    C. 1 and 4
    D. 1 and 3
    Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/latest/db112/CNCPT/memory.htm#CNCPT1237
QUESTION 155
Which three can be used to schedule automated backups of the database? (Choose three.)
A. DBMS_SCHEDULER
B. RMAN

C. DBMS_BACKUP_RESTORE
D. a cron job
E. expdp
F. Enterprise Manager Database Control
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 156
Which two statements are true about tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. A database instance stores undo data in the SYSTEM tablespace if no undo tablespace exists
B. A database instance hangs if the SYSAUX tablespace becomes unavailable
C. A database with a locally managed SYSTEM tablespace can have dictionary-managed user tablespaces
D. A database can contain multiple undo tablespaces
E. A database can contain only a single temporary tablespace
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 157
Which structure can span multiple data files?
A. a bigfile tablespace
B. an extent
C. a temporary tablespace
D. a permanent tablespace
E. a segment
Correct Answer: E

Reference: https://ocppreparation.wordpress.com/2012/08/18/tablespaces-data-files-segments-and-extents/
QUESTION 158
Which two are true about the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used when a database IS MOUNTED
B. It can be used when a database IS OPEN
C. It can be used only with databases that are running in ARCHIVELOG mode
D. It can repair only databases for which RMAN backups exist
E. It can be used to take RMAN backups
F. It can be used to validate RMAN backups
Correct Answer: DF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmrepai.htm#BRADV89725
QUESTION 159
You want to audit update statements that refer to USER1.DEPT.DNAME.
Which type of auditing must you use?
A. standard auditing
B. mandatory auditing
C. value-based auditing
D. fine-grained auditing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 160
Which two are true about FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET? (Choose two.)
A. It is overridden by LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL
B. If it is set to 0, the MTTR Advisor is disabled
C. A higher value increases the I/O overhead
D. It is applicable only when the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode
E. A lower value increases the time taken to perform instance recovery
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 161
Which two are true about the Archive (ARCn) processes? (Choose two.)
A. They are enabled only when the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode
B. They create archivelogs after every log switch
C. They are used during instance recovery
D. They automatically delete obsolete archive logs to make space for new archive logs
E. They archive redo directly from the redo log buffer
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 162
Which three are true about dynamic performance views? (Choose three.)
A. Read consistency is not guaranteed for these views
B. Some of them display data that is useful for SQL statement tuning
C. They display selected data from data dictionary base tables

D. They can be queried only by SYS even when the database is open
E. They contain information that is not available in data dictionary views
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 163
For which requirement should you configure shared servers?
A. accommodating an increasing number of users who run analytical queries in a DSS environment with limited memory
B. submitting backup jobs at regular, 24-hour intervals in an OLTP environment with limited memory
C. using Recovery Manager (RMAN) to recover a database
D. performing bulk-load operations in a DSS environment with limited memory
E. accommodating an increasing number of users who run short-duration, infrequent queries in an OLTP environment with limited memory
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 164
Which two are true about transactions, UNDO segments, and UNDO tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A. UNDO segments grow or shrink automatically
B. UNDO tablespaces are created and dropped automatically
C. UNDO segments are created and dropped automatically
D. UNDO tablespaces are brought ONLINE or OFFLINE as required
E. All transactions belonging to a single session use the same UNDO segment
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 165
Where is an expdp operation tracked?
A. dump files
B. log files
C. control file
D. Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)
E. master table (MT)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 166
Examine this LISTENER.ORA file:
How should you configure and start an additional listener LISTENER2 that listens for the same SID?

A. Create another configuration file called LISTENER2.ORA with only LISTENER2 details in it
B. Add LISTENER2 and its SID_LIST details separately under the name LISTENER2 in LISTENER.ORA
C. Add relevant details in DESCRIPTION under the existing LISTENER with a different port number in LISTENER.ORA
D. Add relevant details in SID_LIST_LISTENER under the existing LISTENER in LISTENER.ORA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 167
Which two are true about the Inventory directory? (Choose two.)
A. It should be created before installing Oracle software for the first time on a server
B. It is shared by all Oracle software installations on a single server
C. It is required only for Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle Database software installations
D. It is owned by the oinstall group, which must be created before installing Oracle software for the first time on a server
E. It can be created only if the ORACLE_BASE environment variable is set
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 168
Which two events always cause the LGWR to write? (Choose two.)
A. when a checkpoint occurs
B. when DBWn writes dirty buffers
C. when LGWR is notified by a server process that performs a COMMIT OR ROLLBACK
D. when a log switch occurs
E. when PMON restarts a server process

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 169
Examine these SQL statements and their output:

Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. Transactions will wait until free space becomes available in the UNDO tablespace when they have failed to allocate space
B. Inactive UNDO will be retained for at least 15 minutes

C. Active UNDO will be retained as long as needed by the transactions
D. Expired UNDO will be retained as long as possible within the limits of the current size of the UNDO tablespace
E. The UNDO tablespace will grow automatically if there is not enough space to retain active UNDO
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 170
Examine these attributes for the profile assigned to USER1 whose password is oracle_4U.
PASSWORD_REUSE_MAX IS 5
PASSWORD_REUSE_TIME IS 10
PASSWORD_GARCE_TIME IS 15
Which two conditions must be met for USER1 to reuse oracle_4U? (Choose two.)
A. At least 10 days must have passed since oracle_4U was last used
B. The password must have changed 5 times since oracle_4U was last used
C. At least 15 days must have passed since oracle_4U was last used
D. At least 5 days must have passed since oracle_4U was last used
E. The password must have changed 10 times since oracle_4U was last used
Correct Answer: AB

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