共回答了21个问题采纳率:71.4%
你的公式抄错了.
应该是sin(x) = ∑{1 ≤ n} (-1)^(n-1)·x^(2n-1)/(2n-1)!,这样不会有n = 0的问题.
或者是sin(x) = ∑{0 ≤ n} (-1)^n·x^(2n+1)/(2n+1)!,这样n = 0也没问题.
证明可用带Lagrange余项的Taylor展开.
f(x) = ∑{0 ≤ k ≤ n} f^(k)(0)·x^k/k!+f^(n+1)(tx)·x^(n+1)/(n+1)!.
其中f^(k)(x)表示f(x)的k阶导数,f^(0)(x) = f(x),而t为(0,1)中的某个实数(与x有关).
sin(x)的各阶导数(从0阶开始)依次为sin(x),cos(x),-sin(x),-cos(x),sin(x),cos(x),...
在x = 0处取值依次为0,1,0,-1,0,1,...
因此展开到2n+1阶得:
sin(x) = ∑{0 ≤ k ≤ n} (-1)^k·x^(2k+1)/(2k+1)!+(-1)^(n+1)·sin(tx)·x^(2n+2)/(2n+2)!.
余项|(-1)^(n+1)·sin(tx)·x^(2n+2)/(2n+2)!| ≤ |x|^(2n+2)/(2n+2)!.
对任意给定的实数x,lim{n→∞} |x|^(2n+2)/(2n+2)!= 0,故级数逐点收敛到sin(x).
即有sin(x) = ∑{0 ≤ n} (-1)^n·x^(2n+1)/(2n+1)!.
1年前
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