D. Count the Arrays,组合,Educational Codeforces Round 83 (Rated for Div. 2)

D. Count the Arrays,Educational Codeforces Round 83 (Rated for Div. 2)

http://codeforces.com/contest/1312/problem/D
Your task is to calculate the number of arrays such that:

each array contains n elements;
each element is an integer from 1 to m;
for each array, there is exactly one pair of equal elements;
for each array a, there exists an index i such that the array is strictly ascending before the i-th element and strictly descending after it (formally, it means that aj<aj+1, if j<i, and aj>aj+1, if j≥i).

思路：首先枚举第i位有最大数字j，则前i-1位有$C_{j-1}^{i-1}$种取法，然后后面有n-i个数字，他们都在剩下的j-i个数字中取，因为一旦数字选定，他们的位置就确定了，所以其中有一个数字应该与前i-1个数字中的一个相同，那么取法就有i-1种，再从剩下的j-i个数字中选n-i-1个数字即可，故总的取法数为$C_{j-1}^{i-1}\ast (i-1)\ast C_{j-i}^{n-i-1}$，化简后为$\frac{j-n+2\ast ...\ast j-1}{(i-2)!(n-i-1)!}$，直接预处理出所有要用到的数字的逆元，然后可以发现分子分母都只和i或j有关，分别枚举i,j即可，注意i,j的取值范围

#include<bits/stdc++.h>
#define ll long long
#define MAXN 400005
using namespace std;
const long long MOL = 998244353 ;
long long inv[MAXN],fac[MAXN];
long long qpow(long long a, long long b, long long mod)//?a^b % mod
{
    long long ans = 1;
    a %= mod;
    while(b)
    {
        if(b & 1)ans = a*ans%mod;
        b >>= 1;
        a = a*a%mod;
    }
    return ans;
}
inline void getInv(int k)
{
	fac[0] = 1;
	for(int i = 1;i <= k;++i)
		fac[i] = fac[i-1] * i % MOL; 
	inv[k] = qpow(fac[k],MOL-2,MOL);
	for(int i = k-1;i >= 0;--i)
		inv[i] = inv[i+1] * (i+1) % MOL;
}
int main()
{
	int n,m;
	ll ans;
	getInv(MAXN-5);
	while(~scanf("%d%d",&n,&m))
	{
		ans = 0;
		for(int i = n-1;i <= m;++i)
			ans = (ans + fac[i-1] * inv[i-n+1]%MOL)%MOL;
		ll tmp = 0;
		for(int i = 2;i < n;++i)
			tmp = (tmp+inv[i-2] * inv[n-i-1]%MOL)%MOL;
		ans = ans * tmp %MOL;
		printf("%lld\n",ans);
	}
	return 0;
}