讲道理,最后一道题目不应该是防AK题么,为啥这么水。。
首先一眼容斥,用总方案-不含有质数的方案。
设f[i][j]表示前i个数的和对p的取模为j,明显有f[i][j]=sigma(f[i-1][(j-k)%p]);
然后建构矩阵直接快速幂即可。
#include<iostream>
#include<cstdio>
#include<cstdlib>
#include<cstring>
#include<algorithm>
#define fo(i,a,b) for(int i=a;i<=b;i++)
using namespace std;
typedef long long ll;
const int M=3e7+5;
const int N=2e6+5;
const int mo=20170408;
int n,m,p;
int pr[N],tot,f[205];
bool vis[M];
struct node
{
int mat[105][105];
}ans,a;
inline void mul(node &c,node a,node b)
{
memset(c.mat,0,sizeof(c.mat));
fo(i,0,p-1)
fo(j,0,p-1)
fo(k,0,p-1)
c.mat[i][j]=(c.mat[i][j]+1ll*a.mat[i][k]*b.mat[k][j]%mo)%mo;
}
inline node pow(node a,int b)
{
memset(ans.mat,0,sizeof(ans.mat));
fo(i,0,p-1) ans.mat[i][i]=1;
while (b)
{
if (b&1) mul(ans,ans,a);
mul(a,a,a);
b>>=1;
}
return ans;
}
inline int solve1()
{
fo(i,1,m) f[i%p]++;
fo(j,1,m) a.mat[(-j%p+p)%p][0]++;
fo(i,1,p-1)
fo(j,0,p-1)
a.mat[j][i]=a.mat[(j-1+p)%p][i-1];
a=pow(a,n-1);
int ans=0;
fo(i,0,p-1)
ans=(ans+1ll*f[i]*a.mat[i][0]%mo)%mo;
return ans;
}
inline int solve2()
{
memset(f,0,sizeof(f));
fo(i,1,m)
if (vis[i]) f[i%p]++;
memset(a.mat,0,sizeof(a.mat));
fo(j,1,m)
if (vis[j]) a.mat[(-j%p+p)%p][0]++;
fo(i,1,p-1)
fo(j,0,p-1)
a.mat[j][i]=a.mat[(j-1+p)%p][i-1];
a=pow(a,n-1);
int ans=0;
fo(i,0,p-1)
ans=(ans+1ll*f[i]*a.mat[i][0]%mo)%mo;
return ans;
}
int main()
{
freopen("count.in","r",stdin);
freopen("count.out","w",stdout);
scanf("%d%d%d",&n,&m,&p);
vis[1]=1;
fo(i,2,m)
{
if (!vis[i]) pr[++tot]=i;
fo(j,1,tot)
{
if (i*pr[j]>m)break;
vis[i*pr[j]]=1;
if (i%pr[j]==0) break;
}
}
int ans1=solve1();
int ans2=solve2();
printf("%d",(ans1-ans2+mo)%mo);
return 0;
}