题目
Given a non negative integer number num. For every numbers i in the range 0 ≤ i ≤ num calculate the number of 1’s in their binary representation and return them as an array.
Example:
For num = 5 you should return [0,1,1,2,1,2].
Follow up:
- It is very easy to come up with a solution with run time O(n*sizeof(integer)). But can you do it in linear time O(n) /possibly in a single pass?
- Space complexity should be O(n).
- Can you do it like a boss? Do it without using any builtin function like __builtin_popcount in c++ or in any other language.
分析
将0到10的二进制表示写出来:
0—–>0
1—–>1
2—–>10
3—–>11
4—–>100
5—–>101
6—–>110
7—–>111
8—–>1000
9—–>1001
10—–>1010
我们注意到:
1. 凡是2的幂次, 均只包含一个1.
2. 非2的幂次数 x 所包含1的个数是 x 与最近一个2的幂次数之差所包含1的个数再加1. 例如 x = 9, 则其所含1的个数即9 - 8 = 1的二进制所含1的个数再加1, 也就是2.
因此在求解过程中需要注意的就是判断某个数 i 是否是2的幂次, 如果是, 则其二进制表示只含一个1, 并且记录这个”最近的2的幂次”; 如果不是, 则利用上述方法从前面计算得到的数组推算出当前数字 i 的二进制表示所含1的个数.
解答
bool is_power_of2(int n)
{
double res = log10(n) / log10(2);
return (res - (int)res) == 0;
}
int* countBits(int num, int* returnSize) {
int *p = malloc(sizeof(int) * (num+1));
p[0] = 0;
int last = 0;
for (int i = 1; i <= num; i++) {
if (is_power_of2(i)) {
p[i] = 1;
last = i;
} else {
p[i] = p[i - last] + 1;
}
}
*returnSize = num+1;
return p;
}