题意(为了方便描述,修改了一些题意,本来是
j
m
j^m
jm):求
∑
i
=
0
n
(
n
i
)
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
∑
j
=
1
i
j
m
−
1
(
1
≤
n
≤
1
0
9
,
1
≤
m
−
1
≤
1
0
6
)
\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\sum_{j=1}^ij^{m-1}\quad (1\le n\le 10^9,1\le m-1\le 10^6)
i=0∑n(in)pi(1−p)n−ij=1∑ijm−1(1≤n≤109,1≤m−1≤106)
容易发现:存在一个
m
m
m 次多项式
f
(
x
)
f(x)
f(x) 满足
f
(
i
)
=
∑
j
=
1
i
j
m
−
1
f(i)=\sum_{j=1}^ij^{m-1}
f(i)=∑j=1ijm−1 设
f
(
x
)
=
∑
i
=
0
m
a
i
x
i
f(x)=\sum_{i=0}^ma_ix^i
f(x)=∑i=0maixi
则:
∑
i
=
0
n
(
n
i
)
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
∑
j
=
1
i
j
m
−
1
=
∑
i
=
0
n
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
i
j
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
(
n
i
)
=
∑
i
=
0
n
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
∑
k
=
0
i
S
(
j
,
k
)
(
i
k
)
k
!
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
(
n
i
)
=
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
∑
k
=
0
n
S
(
j
,
k
)
∑
i
=
k
n
(
i
k
)
(
n
i
)
k
!
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
=
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
∑
k
=
0
n
S
(
j
,
k
)
∑
i
=
k
n
(
n
k
)
(
n
−
k
i
−
k
)
k
!
p
i
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
i
=
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
∑
k
=
0
n
S
(
j
,
k
)
(
n
k
)
k
!
p
k
∑
i
′
=
0
n
−
k
(
n
−
k
i
′
)
p
i
′
(
1
−
p
)
n
−
k
−
i
′
=
∑
j
=
0
m
a
j
∑
k
=
0
n
S
(
j
,
k
)
(
n
k
)
k
!
p
k
1
\begin{aligned} \sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\sum_{j=1}^ij^{m-1}&=\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=0}^ma_j{\color{red}{i^j}}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\binom{n}{i}\\ &=\sum_{i=0}^n\sum_{j=0}^ma_j{\color{red}{\sum_{k=0}^i}S(j,k)\binom{i}{k}k!}p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\binom{n}{i}\\ &=\sum_{j=0}^ma_j\sum_{k=0}^nS(j,k)\sum_{i=k}^n{\color{blue}\binom{i}{k}\binom{n}{i}}k!p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\\ &=\sum_{j=0}^ma_j\sum_{k=0}^nS(j,k)\sum_{i=k}^n{\color{blue}\binom{n}{k}\binom{n-k}{i-k}}k!p^i(1-p)^{n-i}\\ &=\sum_{j=0}^ma_j\sum_{k=0}^nS(j,k)\binom{n}{k}k!p^k{\color{red}\sum_{i'=0}^{n-k}\binom{n-k}{i'}p^{i'}(1-p)^{n-k-i'}}\\ &=\sum_{j=0}^ma_j\sum_{k=0}^nS(j,k)\binom{n}{k}k!p^k{\color{red}1}\\ \end{aligned}
i=0∑n(in)pi(1−p)n−ij=1∑ijm−1=i=0∑nj=0∑majijpi(1−p)n−i(in)=i=0∑nj=0∑majk=0∑iS(j,k)(ki)k!pi(1−p)n−i(in)=j=0∑majk=0∑nS(j,k)i=k∑n(ki)(in)k!pi(1−p)n−i=j=0∑majk=0∑nS(j,k)i=k∑n(kn)(i−kn−k)k!pi(1−p)n−i=j=0∑majk=0∑nS(j,k)(kn)k!pki′=0∑n−k(i′n−k)pi′(1−p)n−k−i′=j=0∑majk=0∑nS(j,k)(kn)k!pk1
这里可以只让 k k k 枚举到 m m m 而不是 n n n !!! 因为 k k k 大于 m m m 之后 k > m ≥ j k>m\ge j k>m≥j 了 S ( j , k ) = 0 S(j,k)=0 S(j,k)=0,笔者一开始想到了,最后又忘了导致差一点A。。。
= ∑ j = 0 m a j ∑ k = 0 m S ( j , k ) ( n k ) k ! p k = ∑ k = 0 m ( n k ) k ! p k ∑ j = 0 m a j ∑ i = 0 k ( − 1 ) k − i ( k i ) i j = ∑ k = 0 m ( n k ) k ! p k ∑ i = 0 k ( − 1 ) k − i ( k i ) ∑ j = 0 m a j i j = ∑ k = 0 m ( n k ) k ! p k ∑ i = 0 k ( − 1 ) k − i ( k i ) f ( i ) =\sum_{j=0}^ma_j\sum_{k=0}^m{\color{red}S(j,k)}\binom{n}{k}k!p^k\\ =\sum_{k=0}^m\binom{n}{k}k!p^k\sum_{j=0}^ma_j{\color{red}\sum_{i=0}^k(-1)^{k-i}\binom{k}{i}i^j}\\ =\sum_{k=0}^m\binom{n}{k}k!p^k\sum_{i=0}^k(-1)^{k-i}\binom{k}{i}{\color{blue}\sum_{j=0}^ma_ji^j}\\ =\sum_{k=0}^m\binom{n}{k}k!p^k\sum_{i=0}^k(-1)^{k-i}\binom{k}{i}{\color{blue}f(i)}\\ =j=0∑majk=0∑mS(j,k)(kn)k!pk=k=0∑m(kn)k!pkj=0∑maji=0∑k(−1)k−i(ik)ij=k=0∑m(kn)k!pki=0∑k(−1)k−i(ik)j=0∑majij=k=0∑m(kn)k!pki=0∑k(−1)k−i(ik)f(i)
令 G ( x ) = ∑ i ≥ 0 ( − 1 ) i i ! x i , F ( x ) = ∑ i ≥ 0 f ( i ) / i ! x i G(x)=\sum_{i\ge0}\cfrac{(-1)^{i}}{i!}x^i,F(x)=\sum_{i\ge0}f(i)/i!x^i G(x)=∑i≥0i!(−1)ixi,F(x)=∑i≥0f(i)/i!xi
则答案为
∑
k
=
0
m
(
n
k
)
(
k
!
)
2
p
k
[
x
k
]
(
F
∗
G
)
(
x
)
\sum_{k=0}^m\binom{n}{k}(k!)^2p^k[x^k](F*G)(x)\\
k=0∑m(kn)(k!)2pk[xk](F∗G)(x)