多项式逼近理论得到常用三角函数的无穷级数乘积公式
问题: 求方程 sin ( x ) = 0 \sin(x)=0 sin(x)=0 的解。
1、首先, sin ( x ) = 0 \sin(x)=0 sin(x)=0 有解 { k π ， k = 0 , ± 1 , ± 2 , ⋯ . } \{kπ，k=0,\pm 1,\pm 2, \cdots .\} {kπ，k=0,±1,±2,⋯.}
2、假设 sin ( x ) \sin(x) sin(x) 是多项式函数，由多项式有根的代数基本理论 (the fundamental theorem of algebra) 即 多项式逼近理论 (polynomial approximation theorem)
sin ( x ) = c ∗ ∏ k = 1 ∞ ( k π − x ) ( k π + x ) x sin ( x ) x = c ∗ ∏ k = 1 ∞ ( k π − x ) ( k π + x ) \displaystyle \sin(x) = c*\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} (kπ-x)(kπ+x)x \\[1em]\frac{\sin(x)}{x} = c*\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} (kπ-x)(kπ+x) sin(x)=c∗k=1∏∞(kπ−x)(kπ+x)xxsin(x)=c∗k=1∏∞(kπ−x)(kπ+x)
令
x
→
0
x \to 0
x→0， 求极限得到
c
=
∏
k
=
1
∞
1
k
2
π
2
\displaystyle c=\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac {1}{k^2π^2}
c=k=1∏∞k2π21
我们得到奇函数 sin ( x ) \sin(x) sin(x) 的无穷级数乘积公式（一）：
f s i n ( x ) = sin ( x ) = x ∏ k = 1 ∞ ( 1 − x k π ) ( 1 + x k π ) = x ∏ k = 1 ∞ [ 1 − x 2 ( k π ) 2 ] \displaystyle \begin{aligned} \red {fsin(x)} =\sin(x) &= x {\prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} ({1- \frac{x}{kπ})} (1+ \frac{x}{kπ})} \\&= x \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} \left[1- \frac{x^2}{(kπ)^2}\right ] \end{aligned} fsin(x)=sin(x)=xk=1∏∞(1−kπx)(1+kπx)=xk=1∏∞[1−(kπ)2x2]
令 x = π 2 x = \frac{π}{2} x=2π, 有
π 2 = ∏ k = 1 ∞ 2 k 2 k − 1 ⋅ 2 k 2 k + 1 = ∏ k = 1 ∞ 1 1 − 1 4 k 2 = ∏ k = 1 ∞ [ 1 + 1 4 k 2 − 1 ] = 2 1 ⋅ 2 3 ⋅ 4 3 ⋅ 4 5 ⋅ 6 5 ⋅ 6 7 ⋯ = 4 3 ⋅ 16 15 ⋅ 36 35 ⋅ 64 63 ⋯ \displaystyle \begin{aligned} \frac{π}{2} &= \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} \frac{2k}{2k-1} \centerdot \frac{2k}{2k+1} \\&= \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} \frac{1}{1- \frac{1}{4k^2}} \\&= \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} \left[1+\frac{1}{4k^2-1}\right] \\&=\frac{2}{1} \centerdot \frac{2}{3} \centerdot \frac{4}{3} \centerdot \frac{4}{5} \centerdot \frac{6}{5} \centerdot \frac{6}{7} \cdots \\&=\frac{4}{3} \centerdot \frac{16}{15} \centerdot \frac{36}{35} \centerdot \frac{64}{63} \cdots \end{aligned} 2π=k=1∏∞2k−12k⋅2k+12k=k=1∏∞1−4k211=k=1∏∞[1+4k2−11]=12⋅32⋅34⋅54⋅56⋅76⋯=34⋅1516⋅3536⋅6364⋯
参见 John Wallis’ product for π π π
因为
sin
(
π
/
2
−
x
)
=
cos
(
x
)
\sin(\pi/2-x)=\cos(x)
sin(π/2−x)=cos(x), 所以有偶函数
cos
(
x
)
\cos(x)
cos(x) 的无穷级数乘积公式（二）：
f
c
1
(
x
)
=
cos
(
x
)
=
(
π
2
−
x
)
∏
k
=
1
∞
(
1
−
π
/
2
−
x
k
π
)
(
1
+
π
/
2
−
x
k
π
)
=
(
π
2
−
x
)
∏
k
=
1
∞
(
1
−
1
2
k
+
x
k
π
)
(
1
+
1
2
k
−
x
k
π
)
\displaystyle \begin{aligned} \red{fc_1(x)}=\cos(x)&=(\frac{\pi}{2}-x) \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} {\left(1 - \frac{\pi/2-x}{kπ}\right)} {\left(1 + \frac{\pi/2-x}{kπ}\right)}\\&=(\frac{\pi}{2}-x) \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} {\left(1-\frac{1}{2k}+\frac{x}{k \pi}\right)}{\left(1+\frac{1}{2k}-\frac{x}{k \pi}\right)} \end{aligned}
fc1(x)=cos(x)=(2π−x)k=1∏∞(1−kππ/2−x)(1+kππ/2−x)=(2π−x)k=1∏∞(1−2k1+kπx)(1+2k1−kπx)
同理可得
f c o s ( x ) = cos ( x ) = ( 1 − 2 x π ) ∏ k = 1 ∞ ( 1 + 2 x ( 2 k − 1 ) π ) ( 1 − 2 x ( 2 k + 1 ) π ) = ( 1 − 2 x π ) ∏ k = 1 ∞ ( 1 + x / π k − 1 / 2 ) ( 1 − x / π k + 1 / 2 ) \displaystyle \begin{aligned} \red{fcos(x)}=\cos(x)&=\left(1-\frac{2x}{\pi}\right) \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} {\left(1 + \frac{2x}{(2k-1)π}\right)} {\left(1 - \frac{2x}{(2k+1)π}\right)}\\&=\left(1-\frac{2x}{\pi}\right) \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} {\left(1+\frac{x/\pi}{k-1/2}\right)}{\left(1-\frac{x/\pi}{k+1/2}\right)} \end{aligned} fcos(x)=cos(x)=(1−π2x)k=1∏∞(1+(2k−1)π2x)(1−(2k+1)π2x)=(1−π2x)k=1∏∞(1+k−1/2x/π)(1−k+1/2x/π)
f t a n ( x ) = tan ( x ) = 4 x π ⋅ ∏ k = 1 ∞ 1 − x k π 1 − 1 4 k ⋅ 1 + x k π 1 + 1 4 k \displaystyle \begin{aligned} \red{ftan(x)}= \tan(x)&=\frac{4x}{\pi} \centerdot \prod_{k=1} ^{\infty} \frac{1 - \frac{x}{kπ}}{1-\frac{1}{4k}} \centerdot \frac{1 + \frac{x}{kπ}}{1+\frac{1}{4k}}\end{aligned} ftan(x)=tan(x)=π4x⋅k=1∏∞1−4k11−kπx⋅1+4k11+kπx
481
被折叠的 条评论
为什么被折叠?
到【灌水乐园】发言
