东北大学软件项目管理与过程改进题库——首字母排序

本题库按首字母排序,包含选择,填空以及部分解答题。

_____ addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and modifying a system.
—Systems management

_____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time.
—Net present value (NPV)

_____ are groups of nonsupervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.
—Quality circles

_____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence.
—Directives

_____ are people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents to the project.
—Stakeholders

_____ are revenues minus expenditures.
—profits

_____ are sets of interacting components working within an environment to fulfill some purpose.
—Systems

_____ are short descriptions written by customers of what they need a Scrum system to do for them.
—User stories

_____ are the screens and reports the system generates.
—System outputs

_____ correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
—Process adjustments

_____ costing considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.
—Life cycle

_____ costing helps to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.
—Life cycle

_____ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.
—Cause-and-effect
Fishbone
Ishikawa

_____ factors include relevant government or industry standards, the organization’s infrastructure, and marketplace conditions.
—Enterprise environmental

_____ have no duration and no resources but are occasionally needed on AOA network diagrams to show logical relationships between activities.
—Dummy activities

_____ include formal and informal plans, policies, procedures, guidelines, information systems, financial systems, management systems, lessons learned, and historical information that can be used to influence a project’s success.
—Organization process assets

_____ include people, hardware, software, or other assets.
—Resources

_____ includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what work is or is not included in a project.
—Project scope management

_____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
—Statistical sampling

_____ involves controlling changes to the project scope while keeping project goals and business strategy in mind.
—Scope control

_____ involves coordinating all of the other project management knowledge areas throughout a project’s life cycle.
—Project integration management

_____ involves determining long-term objectives by analyzing the strengths and weaknesses, studying opportunities and threats, predicting future trends, and projecting the need for new products and services.
—Strategic planning

_____ involves developing a working replica of the system or some aspect of the system.
—Prototyping

_____ involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of the project.
—Interface management

_____ involves identifying, evaluating, and managing changes throughout the project life cycle.
—Integrated change control

_____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.
—Controlling quality

_____ involves the processes required to ensure timely completion of a project.
—Project schedule management

_____ is “the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.”
—Project management

_____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.
—Six 9s of qualitySix nines of quality

_____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them
—Use case modeling

_____ is a project management methodology that defines 45 separate subprocesses and organizes these into eight process groups.
—PRojects IN Controlled Environments (PRINCE2)

_____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.
—Earned value management

_____ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.
—Design of experiments

_____ is a technique that uses branches radiating from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas.
—Mind mapping

_____ is a technique that uses branches radiating out from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas when creating a WBS
—Mind mapping

_____ is an organization’s acquisition of goods and services from an outside source.
—Outsourcing

_____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
—Reliability

_____ is the difference between planned and actual performance.
—Variance

_____ is the number of workdays or work hours required to complete a task.
—Effort

_____ is the result of subtracting the project costs from the benefits and then dividing by the costs.
—Return on investment (ROI)

_____ is the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger.
—Scope creep

_____ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.
—Standard deviation

_____ occurs when a resource works on more than one task at a time.
—Multitasking

_____ progress from initiation activities to planning activities, executing activities, monitoring and controlling activities, and closing activities.
—Project management process groups

_____ project work includes collecting, measuring, and disseminating performance information.
—Monitoring

_____ refer to “conditions or capabilities that must be met by the project or present in the product, service, or result to satisfy an agreement or other formally imposed specification.”
—Requirements

_____ refer to chances to improve the organization.
—Opportunities

_____ refer to undesirable situations that prevent an organization from achieving its goals.
—Problems

_____ refers to a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization.

-Chain of command
-Line of control
-Organizational culture
-Organizational structure
—Organizational culture

_____ refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.
—Scope

_____ refers to the degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior.
—Control

_____ refers to the degree to which work activities are organized around teams, rather than individuals.
—Group emphasis

_____ refers to the process in which organizations group and manage projects and programs as a portfolio of investments that contribute to the entire enterprise’s success.
—Project portfolio management

_____ software development can be used for software development or in any environment in which the requirements are unknown or change quickly.
—Agile

_____ states that if something can go wrong, it will.
—Murphy’s Law

_____ the project includes work required to introduce any new hardware, software, and procedures into normal operations.
—Executing

_____ theory states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.
—Learning curve

_____ tools, a step up from low-end tools, are designed to handle larger projects, multiple users, and multiple projects.
—Midrange

________ are a means of measuring software size based on what the software does for end users.
—Function points

_________ issues often occur during project execution, especially conflicts.
—Human resource

A _____ is a starting point, a measurement, or an observation that is documented so that it can be used for future comparison. changes.
—baseline

A _____ is a tool used in quality management.

-probability matrix
-checklist
-request for proposal
-critical path analysis
—checklist

A _____ is a tool used in risk management.

-work breakdown structure
-project organizational chart
-critical path analysis
-probability matrix
—probability matrix

A _____ is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization.

-Project Management Office
-Project Management Professional
-Project Management Center
-Portfolio Group
—Project Management Office

A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method, because Scrum implies that team members work as a self-directed group.

-team charter
-velocity estimate
-Gantt chart
-product backlog
—team charter

A backward pass through the network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.

True
False
—False

A budgetary estimate is the most accurate of the three types of estimates.

True
False
—False

A cost management plan can include organizational procedures links, control thresholds, and process descriptions.

True
False
—True

A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.
—project management

A dependency pertains to the sequencing of project activities or tasks.

True
False
—True

A difference between operations and projects is that operations end when their objectives have been reached, whereas projects do not.
—False

A difference between strategic and tactical goals is:

-strategic goals are more specific than tactical goals.
-tactical goals encompass broader dimensions than strategic goals.
-tactical goals are more important for a project than strategic goals.
-strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.
—strategic goals are long-term in nature whereas tactical goals are short-term.

A disadvantage of using Gantt charts is that they do not provide a standard format for displaying planned project schedule information.

True
False
—False

A drawback of the precedence diagramming method is that it cannot be used unless dummy activities are employed.

True
False
—False

A drawback of the project management software is that it does not have the capacity to calculate the critical path(s) for a project.

True
False
—False

A drawback of using _____ or sample files is that managers and their teams might rely heavily on them and ignore unique concerns for their particular projects.
—templates

A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format.

-calendar
-line graph
-bar graph
-pie chart
—calendar

A Gantt chart is the same as a project management plan.
—False

A hierarchy is used to show the levels of _____ in the WBS.
—task

A major element of good practice concerns _____, which addresses the authority and control for key IT activities in organizations, including IT infrastructure, IT use, and project management.
—IT governance

A merge occurs when one node precedes multiple nodes.

True
False
—False

A milestone list is an output associated with the Project Scope Management knowledge area.
—False

A negative schedule variance means that it took less time than planned to perform the work.

True
False
—False

A positive NPV means the return from a project exceeds the _____, the return available by investing the capital elsewhere.
—cost of capital

A project charter typically does not authorize the project manager to use organizational resources to complete the project.
—False

A project manager’s primary role is to provide the funding for a project.
—False

A project’s internal rate of return can be determined by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of what value for the project?

-zero
-one
-a hundred percent
-fifty percent
—zero

A project’s sponsor is also known as a(n) _____.
—primary customer

A project’s stakeholders include its customers, users, and suppliers
—True

A risk register is the output of _____.
—risk management

A run chart is a bar graph that depicts data points and their order of occurrence.

True
False
—False

A schedule management plan includes information which describes the format and frequency of schedule reports required for the project.

True
False
—True

A schedule performance index of one means that the project is on schedule.

True
False
—True

A sprint review is a meeting in which the team demonstrates to the product owner what it has completed during the sprint.
—True

A summary of the planned approach for managing the project should describe stakeholder needs and expectations, important assumptions, and constraints.
—True

A SWOT analysis, being a linear process, cannot be performed using the nonlinear mind mapping technique.
—False

A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.

True
False
—True

A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.

True
False
—True

A white diamond on a Tracking Gantt chart represents a(n) _____.
—slipped milestone

A work package is a task at the _____ level of the WBS.
—lowest

A work package must always represent less than 80 hours of work.

True
False
—False

A work package represents one component of the product that the project aims to deliver.

True
False
—False

A(n) _____ describes how things should be done.
—methodology

A(n) _____ determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity in a project.
—forward pass

A(n) _____ estimate is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.
—rough order of magnitude (ROM)

A(n) _____ for a project is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which the project can be completed.
—critical path

A(n) _____ Gantt chart compares planned and actual project schedule information.
—Tracking

A(n) _____ involves analyzing a company’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats, and is used to aid in strategic planning.
—SWOT analysis

A(n) _____ is “a group of related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits and control not available from managing them individually.”
—program

A(n) _____ is a cross-functional team of five to nine people who organize themselves and the work to produce the desired results for each sprint.
—Scrum team
development team

A(n) _____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines its total scope.
—WBS

A(n) _____ is a document that describes detailed information about each WBS item.
—WBS dictionary

A(n) _____ is a document that includes stakeholders’ roles, names, organizations, and contact information.
—stakeholder register

A(n) _____ is a formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to a project.
—change control board (CCB)

A(n) _____ is a framework for describing the phases of developing information systems.
—SDLC

A(n) _____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project so that stakeholders can meet each other, review the goals of the project, and discuss future plans.
—kick-off meeting

A(n) _____ is a schematic display of the logical relationships among project activities andtheir sequencing.
—network diagram

A(n) _____ is a Scrum artifact and consists of the highest-priority items from the product backlog to be completed in a sprint.
—sprint backlog

A(n) _____ is a set period of time, normally two to four weeks, during which specific work must be completed and made ready for review when using Scrum methods.
—sprint

A(n) _____ is a strategic planning and management system that helps organizations align business activities to strategy, improve
—balanced scorecard

A(n) _____ is a table that lists requirements, their various attributes, and the status of the requirements to ensure that all are addressed.
—requirements traceability matrix

A(n) _____ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
—project

A(n) _____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.
—cost baseline

A(n) _____ is a tool that provides a systematic process for selecting projects based on many criteria.
—weighted scoring model

A(n) _____ is an overall model for thinking about things as systems.
—systems philosophy

A(n) _____ is the person responsible for the business value of the project and for deciding what work to do and in what order when using a Scrum method.
—product owner

A(n) _____ is the person who ensures that the team is productive, facilitates the daily Scrum, enables close cooperation across all roles and functions, and removes barriers that prevent the team from being effective.
—ScrumMaster

A(n) _____ refers to a product or service, such as a report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project.
—deliverable

A(n)_____ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result.
—process

A(n)_____ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.
—quality audit

According to the symbolic frame, the most important aspect of any event in an organization is not what actually happened, but what it means.
—True

Accountants define _____ as a resource sacrificed or foregone to to achieve a specific objective.
—cost

Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in which processes?

-monitoring and controlling
-executing
-initiating
-closing
—closing

After defining project activities, the next step in project schedule management is developing the schedule.

True
False
—False

After reviewing the project management plan, project charter, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets, the project team uses expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings to develop the _____.
—schedule management plan

After working with key stakeholders to define activities and calculate their resources, what is the next process in project schedule management?

-develop the schedule.
-control the schedule.
-determine their dependencies.
-estimate the duration of activities.
—estimate the duration of activities.

Agile methods are used when deliverables have a low degree of change.
—False

An activity is an element of work that has an expected duration, cost, and resource requirements.

True
False
—True

An annual discount factor is a multiplier for each year based on the discount rate and year.
—True

An important tool for project scope management is _____.

-fast tracking
-a kickoff meeting
-a Gantt chart
-a work breakdown structure
—a work breakdown structure

An IT company revises its process parameters in response to complaints from vendors that products were not ready on time. Which is this an example of?

-cost forecasting
-a preventive action
-defect repairs
-a corrective action
—a corrective action

An organization should consider only projects with a negative NPV if financial value is a key criterion for project selection.
—False

An organization that uses a project organizational structure earns their revenue primarily from performing projects for other groups under contract.
—True

An organization usually commits more money as a project continues, therefore a management review should occur after each phase to evaluate progress, potential success, and continued compatibility with organizational goals.
—True

An organization’s information technology project selection process should guide the strategic plan.
—False

An organization’s project management plan expresses the vision, mission, goals, objectives, and strategies of the organization.
—False

An organizational culture with strong unit integration makes the project manager’s job more difficult.
—False

An organizational process assets update is the output of which closing process?

-project integration management
-project quality management
-project procurement management
-project time management
—project integration management

Analogous estimates are called activity-based costing.

True
False
—False

Analogous estimates are the most accurate technique to estimate costs.

True
False
—False

As projects progress, the organization must reevaluate the need, funding, and will for each project to determine if the project should be continued, redefined, or terminated.
—True

Budgetary estimates are made even before a project is officially started.

True
False
—True

Change requests and verified deliverables are the outputs of the controlling quality process.

True
False
—True

Change requests are always made in writing.
—True

Complete the formula: sample size = 0.25 * ( _____ /acceptable error)2
—certainty factor

Contingency reserves are also known as unknown unknowns.

True
False
—False

Corrective actions reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks, while preventive actions should result in improvements in project performance.
—False

Creating the _____ involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
—WBS

Creating the WBS is a subprocess associated with which process in project scope management?

-planning
-monitoring and controlling
-closing
-executing
—planning

Critical chain scheduling assumes that resources multitask and maximizes multitasking.

True
False
—False

Customer requirements are an important aspect of the quality planning process.

True
False
—True

Decisions and actions taken in one knowledge area at a certain time rarely affect other knowledge areas.
—False

Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion.

True
False
—True

Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.

True.
False
—False

DeMarco and Lister’s study on organizations and productivity found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary

True
False
—False

Describe the relationship between Six Sigma and statistics. What statistical concepts are involved in the Six Sigma philosophy?
—An important concept in Six Sigma is improving quality by reducing variation. The term sigma means standard deviation. Standard deviation measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data. A small standard deviation means that data clusters closely around the middle of a distribution and there is little variability among the data. A large standard deviation means that data is spread out around the middle of the distribution and there is relatively greater variability.

A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the mean or average value of the population (the data being analyzed). In any normal distribution, 68.3 percent of the population is within one standard deviation (1sigma) of the mean, 95.5 percent of the population is within two standard deviations (2sigma), and 99.7 percent of the population is within three standard deviations (3sigma) of the mean.
Standard deviation is a key factor in determining the acceptable number of defective units found in a population. A plus or minus six sigma in pure statistical terms means only two defective units per billion. However, the target for Six Sigma programs is 3.4 defects per million opportunities. Based on Motorola’s original work on Six Sigma in the 1980s, the convention used for Six Sigma is a scoring system that accounts for more variation in a process than you would typically find in a few weeks or months of data gathering. In other words, time is an important factor in determining process variations.

Describe three tools used in developing a good cost estimate.
—Several tools and techniques can be used to create a cost estimate. Three of such tools are as follows:

(1) Analogous estimates use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. This technique requires a good deal of expert judgment and is generally less costly than other techniques, but it is also less accurate. Analogous estimates are most reliable when the previous projects are similar in fact, not just in appearance. In addition, the groups preparing cost estimates must have the needed expertise to determine whether certain parts of the project will be more or less expensive than analogous projects.

(2) Bottom-up estimates involve estimating the costs of individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. This approach is sometimes referred to as activity-based costing. The size of the individual work items and the experience of the estimators drive the accuracy of the estimates. Using smaller work items increases the accuracy of the cost estimate because the people assigned to do the work develop the cost estimate instead of someone unfamiliar with the work. The drawback with bottom-up estimates is that they are usually time-intensive and therefore expensive to develop.

(3)Three-point estimates involve estimating the most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic costs for items.

(4) Parametric estimating uses project characteristics (parameters) in a mathematical model to estimate project costs. Parametric models are most reliable when the historical information used to create the model is accurate, the parameters are readily quantifiable, and the model is flexible in terms of the project’s size.

Determining the budget involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.

True
False
—True

Duration estimates can be provided as a discrete number, a range, or as a(n) _____.
—three-point estimate

During which approach do team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible and then aggregate the specific tasks and organize them into summary activities, or higher levels in the WBS?

-analogy
-bottom-up
-top-down
-mind mapping
—bottom-up

During which phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram used?

  • define
  • measure
  • analyze
  • improve
    —analyze

During which relationship is the “from” activity unable start until the “to” activity is started?

-start-to-start
-finish-to-finish
-finish-to-start
-start-to-finish
—start-to-start

Earned value management involves calculating three values for each activity or summary activity from a project’s WBS. Describe each of these three values with examples.
—(1) The planned value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work. Suppose that a project included a summary activity of purchasing and installing a new web server. Suppose further that, according to the plan, it would take one week and cost a total of $10,000 for the labor hours, hardware, and software. Therefore, the planned value (PV) for the activity that week is $10,000.

(2) The actual cost (AC) is the realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period. For example, suppose that it actually took two weeks and cost $20,000 to purchase and install the new web server. Assume that $15,000 of these actual costs were incurred during Week 1 and $5,000 was incurred during Week 2. These amounts are the actual cost (AC) for the activity each week.

(3) The earned value (EV) is the measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. It cannot be greater than the authorized PV budget for a component as it is calculated as the sum of the PV of the completed work.

Earned value management is a tool primarily used in resource management.
—False

Effective program managers recognize that managing a project is much more complex than managing a program.
—False

Enterprise project management software is also known as a _____ tool of project management software.

-baseline
-midrange
-low-end
-high-end
—high-end

Estimates should become more accurate as time progresses.

True
False
—True

Ethics is a set of principles that guides decision making based on _____ of what is considered right and wrong.
—personal values

Every project should have a well-defined objective.
—True

Fast tracking is an example of a tool used in _____ management.

-schedule
-quality
-communication
-risk
—schedule

Frameworks for helping organizations improve their processes and systems are called Six Sigma charts.

True
False
—False

Galaxy, a construction company, buys a particular brand of tiles manufactured by Tiles and Floors, an eco-friendly tile manufacturing company. However, Tiles and Floors has declared bankruptcy and closed down. At present, Galaxy is facing a crisis because there are no other manufacturers in the market that supplies eco-friendly tiles. Which constraint is Galaxy currently facing?

-Resources
-Time
-Scope
-Cost
—Resources

Gantt charts cannot be used to aid project quality management.

True
False
—False

Genichi Taguchi’s _____ methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.
—Robust Design

Given the project management software that is available, it is relatively easy to create a good WBS.

True
False
—False

Good Earth, a company manufacturing packaged food products, sets up its stores in Baltonia. However, a year later, the company closes the store down due to high operating costs. In such a scenario, the money spent in paying for the rent of the store in Baltonia would be an example of which costs?

  • recurring
  • direct
  • sunk
  • intangible
    —sunk

Good project managers assume that their definition of success is the same as the sponsors.
—False

Grey’s Infotech sells customized hardware and software solutions for businesses. The salespeople for Grey’s have a strict dress code when meeting clients. They are required to wear dark business suits, in order to convey the company’s dedication to quality. The meaning conveyed to the clients’ through the salespeople’s clothing is part of the _____ frame of the organization.

-political
-symbolic
-structural
-human resrouces
—symbolic

High-end tools are generally licensed on a(n) _____ basis.
—per-user

High-end tools in project management software have enterprise and _____ functions that summarize and combine individual project information to provide an enterprise view of all projects.
—portfolio management

How are profits best defined?

  • expenses plus net income
  • costs plus revenues
  • revenues plus expenses
  • revenues minus expenditures
    ---- revenues minus expenditures

How does critical chain scheduling protect tasks on the critical chain from being delayed?

-critical paths
-feeding buffers
-dummy activities
-fast tracking
—feeding buffers

Identifying the project sponsor is a pre-initiation task.
—True

If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.

True
False
—True

If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work costs more than planned.

True
False
—False

If done well, the _________ can produce several releases of useful software.
—agile approach
agile method

If the cost performance index (CPI) is less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.

True
False
—False

In a _____ organizational structure, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers.

-Project
-Symbolic
-Matrix
-Functional
—Matrix

In a _____organizational structure, program managers, rather than functional managers or vice presidents, report to the CEO. Their staffs have a variety of skills needed to complete all required tasks within their programs.

-Project
-Symbolic
-Matrix
-Functional
—Project

In a bottom-up estimate, the size of the individual work items is one of the factors that drives the accuracy of the estimates.

True
False
—True

In a critical path analysis, the shortest path is what drives the completion date for the project.

True
False
—False

In a Gantt chart, thick black bars represent milestones achieved in a project.

True
False
—False

In a network diagram, a(n) _____ is the starting and ending point of an activity.
—node

In a network diagram, it is mandatory for every item on the WBS to be shown instead of only those activities with dependencies.

True
False
—False

In a project schedule, the variable that has the least amount of flexibility is _____.
—time

In a weighted scoring model, what percent must the sum of the weights of all the criteria total?

-10
-50
-100
-150
—100

In a(n) _____ organizational structure, project managers have little or no authority.
—functional

In a(n) _____ relationship, the “from” activity must start before the “to” activity can be finished.
—start-to-finish

In a(n) _____, the closer data points are to a diagonal line, the more closely the two variables are related.
—scatter diagram

In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, the process of _____ provides a cost baseline.
—cost budgeting

In an AOA network diagram, what occurs when two or more activities follow a single node?

-combinations
-buffers
-mergers
-bursts
—bursts

In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, it indicates that costs are less than planned.

True
False
—False

In order to be realistic, a project manager should always set discrete goals instead of a range of objectives.
—False

In organizational culture, what does control refer to?

-The degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
-The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior
-The degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results
-The degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
—The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee employee behavior

In organizational culture, what does means-end orientation refer to?

-The degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
-The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior
-The degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results
-The degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
—The degree to which management focuses on outcomes rather than on techniques and processes used to achieve results

In organizational culture, what does people focus refer to?

-The degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment
-The degree to which rules, policies, and direct supervision are used to oversee and control employee behavior
-The degree to which management’s decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization
-The degree to which employees are encouraged to be aggressive, innovative, and risk seeking
—The degree to which management’s decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on employees within the organization

In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best _____.
—cost estimates

In project integration management, directing and managing project execution involves carrying out the project management plan by performing the activities included in it.
—True

In project integration management, project ______ and _______ are intertwined and inseparable activities.
—planning, execution

In project management, the three limitations of scope, time, and cost are referred to as the _____.
—triple constraint

In project schedule management, the main goal of which process is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work?

-defining activities
-estimating activity durations
-estimating activity resources
-controlling the schedule
—defining activities

In project schedule management, the next step after sequencing activities is to define these activities.

True
False
—False

In project schedule management, the primary output of defining activities is a schedule management plan.

True
False
—False

In project schedule management, the process of _____ involves deciding how many people, equipment, and materials a project team should use to perform project activities.
—estimating activity resources

In project schedule management, the ultimate goal of which process is to provide a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project?

-defining activities
-sequencing activities
-developing a schedule
-estimating activity resources
—developing a schedule

In project schedule management, what is the next step after defining project activities?

-planning schedule management
-determining their dependencies
-controlling the schedule
-estimating activity duration
—determining their dependencies

In project schedule management, which is an output of controlling the schedule?

-activity duration estimate
-project management plan update
-activity attribute
-milestones list
—project management plan update

In project schedule management, which process generates the main outputs of an activity list, activity attributes, and a milestone list?

-sequencing activities
-defining activities
-resource estimating activities
-estimating activity durations
—defining activities

In project schedule management, which process involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule?

-planning schedule management
-developing the schedule
-controlling the schedule
-defining activities
—developing the schedule

In project schedule management, which process involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities?

-defining activities
-sequencing activities
-planning schedule management
-estimating activity durations
—estimating activity durations

In project schedule management, which process primarily involve identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities?

-defining activities
-sequencing activities
-planning schedule management
-estimating activity durations
—sequencing activities

In project schedule management, which process primarily involves checking and managing changes to the project schedule?

-estimating activity durations
-developing the schedule
-controlling the schedule
-estimating activity resources
—controlling the schedule

In Rizzati Corp, vice presidents in departments such as engineering, manufacturing, IT, and human resources report directly to the chief executive officer and undertake their tasks independently of each other. The staffs of these departments have specialized skills in their respective disciplines. Which type of organizational structure does Rizatti Corp have?

-Project
-Symbolic
-Matrix
-Functional
—Functional

In Scrum, a(n) _____ is a useful object created by people.
—artifact

In the _____ approach to creating a WBS, team members first identify as many specific tasks related to the project as possible.
—bottom-up

In the activity defining process, the project team should review the _____ and activity attributes with project stakeholders before moving on to the next step in project schedule management.
—activity list

In the DMAIC process, the letter “C” stands for _____.
—control

In the Scrum method, during which meeting is the improvement of the product and process discussed?

-sprint retrospective
-sprint review
-kick-off
-daily Scrum
—sprint retrospective

In the Scrum method, team members work as a self-directed group coached by the ScrumMaster.
—True

In TQC, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.

True
False
—True

In what type of organizational structure do project managers have the least amount of authority?

-Functional
-Project
-Matrix
-Circular
—Functional

In what type of organizational structure do project managers have the most authority?

-Functional
-Project
-Matrix
-Circular
—Project

In which development life cycle do stakeholders define and approve the detailed scope before the start on an iteration?

-Adaptive
-Hybrid
-Incremental
-Iterative
—Adaptive

In which of the following areas of management is payback analysis most likely to be used?

-Resource
-Communication
-Cost
-Quality
—Cost

In which product life cycle the scope, schedule, and cost are determined early, and changes to scope are carefully managed?

-Iterative
-Incremental
-Predictive
-Adaptive
—Predictive

In which systems development life cycle do model developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously?

-RAD life cycle
-Prototyping life cycle
-Spiral life cycle
-Waterfall life cycle
—Prototyping life cycle

Individual projects always address strategic goals whereas portfolio management addresses tactical goals.
—False

Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.

True
False
—True

Information systems can help an organization support a strategy of being a low-cost producer.
—True

Initiating and closing tasks are usually the longest and require the most amount of resources and time.
—False

Initiating processes are not required to end a project.
—False

Initiating processes take place during each phase of a project.
—True

Intangible costs can be easily measured in monetary terms.

True
False
—False

Integration testing involves testing of each individual component to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.

True
False
—False

Interface management involves identifying and managing the points of interaction between various elements of a project.
—False

Internal stakeholders include groups affected by the project such as government officials or concerned citizens.
—False

It is important for project managers to focus on indirect costs because they can be easily controlled.

True
False
—False

It is important for project managers to understand that every cost estimate is unique.

True
False
—True

It is important for the activity list and activity attributes to be in agreement with the work breakdown structure.

True
False
—True

It is mandatory for project managers working on large information technology projects to be experts in the field of information technology.
—False

It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases.
—False

It is necessary that IT project managers have prior technical experience in creating and managing IT products.
—False

IT project managers must be able to present and discuss project information both in financial and technical terms.

True
False
—True

Joe is a project manager in an IT company and has over the years, gained substantial knowledge in his area of work. However, while managing his team, he often loses his temper. In addition, he fails to be an active listener when his team members approach him with work related challenges. In which of the following areas does Joe need to develop his skills in?

-Application area knowledge
-Project environment knowledge
-Standards and regulations
-Human relations skills
—Human relations skills

Key outcomes of the executing process group are formal acceptance of the work and creation of closing documents.
—False

Kick-off meeting agendas are usually recorded in a Word document.
—True

Knowing the amount of float allows project managers to know whether a project schedule is flexible.

True
False
—True

Leadership style has no impact on the success of virtual teams.
—False

List and briefly describe the four project cost management processes.
—The four processes for project cost management are as follows:

(1) Planning cost management involves determining the policies, procedures, and documentation that will be used for planning, executing, and controlling project cost. The main output of this process is a cost management plan.

(2) Estimating costs involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete a project. The main outputs of the cost estimating process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.

(3) Determining the budget involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. The main outputs of the cost budgeting process are a cost baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates

.(4) Controlling costs involves controlling changes to the project budget. The main outputs of the cost control process are work performance information, cost forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates.

List and briefly describe the three project quality management processes.
—1. Planning quality management includes identifying which quality requirements and standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy them. Incorporating quality standards into project design is a key part of quality planning. For an IT project, quality standards might include allowing for system growth, planning a reasonable response time for a system, or ensuring that the system produces consistent and accurate information. Quality standards can also apply to IT services. For example, you can set standards for how long it should take to get a reply from a help desk or how long it should take to ship a replacement part for a hardware item under warranty. The main outputs of planning quality management are a quality management plan, quality metrics, project management plan updates, and project documents updates. A metric is a standard of measurement. Examples of common metrics include failure rates of products, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

  1. Managing quality involves translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities. These activities must adhere to the organization’s quality policies. The main outputs of this process are quality reports, test and evaluation documents, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.

  2. Controlling quality involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. This process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. You will learn more about these tools and techniques later in this chapter. The main outputs of quality control include quality control measurements, verified deliverables, work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.

Managing quality includes all of the quality assurance activities plus product design and process improvements.

True
False
—True

Managing the triple constraint primarily involves making trade-offs between resources and quality.
—False

Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.

True
False
—True

Many organizations provide different guidelines and templates for developing WBSs.

True
False
—True

Many project management activities occur as part of the planning process group.
—True

Many projects fail because of unclear requirements and expectations, so starting with a payback analysis makes a lot of sense.
—False

Martha works as a project manager at a bank. Due to certain changes in external factors, Martha needs to make a few alterations in the tactical goals of her project. In such a scenario, which of the following will best help Martha cope with the change?

-Negotiation
-Project environment knowledge
-Motivation
-Soft skills
—Project environment knowledge

Maturity models, statistical methods, and test plans are examples of tools used in quality management.
—True

Milestones are easy to achieve and are always achieved through one main activity.

True
False
—False

Mind mapping allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.

True
False
—True

Mind mapping can be used for developing WBSs using which approach?

-analogy approach only
-bottom-up or analogy approach
-top-down or bottom-up approach
-any approach
—top-down or bottom-up approach

Monitoring and controlling processes overlap all of the other project management process groups.
—True

Most colleges and universities have very strong functional organizations.
—True

Most people believe that the underlying causes of many companies’ problems can be traced to its organizational structure.
—False

Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity sequencing.

True
False
—True

Newtech Inc. hires John for the position of a software programmer to work on their new project. Salary paid to John by Newtech Inc. would be an example of which type of costs?

  • direct
  • indirect
  • sunk
  • intangible
    —direct

NPV analysis is a method for making equal comparisons between cash flows for multi-year projects.
—True

One of PERT’s main disadvantages is that it does not address the risk associated with duration estimates.

True
False
—False

One of the first reality checks on scheduling that a project manager should make is to review the _____.
—draft schedule

One of the main reasons why project management is challenging is because of the factor of uncertainty.
—True

One of the reasons why project cost estimates are inaccurate is because human beings are biased toward underestimation.

True
False
—True

Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.

True
False
—False

Opponents of a project do not belong to the category of stakeholders.
—False

Opportunities and directives are essentially the same thing.
—False

Organizational process asset updates are an important output of the closing process of a project.
—True

Overrun is the additional percentage amount by which estimates exceed actual costs.

True
False
—False

Parametric models are reliable when the models are flexible in terms of the project’s size.
True
False
—False

Passing the CPA exam is a standard for accountants. Similarly, passing the PMP exam is becoming a standard for _____.
—project managers

Payback period is the amount of time it will take to recoup, in the form of net cash inflows, the total dollars invested in a project.
—True

Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of which project quality management stage?

  • initiating
  • closing
  • benchmarking
  • managing
    —managing

Products that are accepted by project stakeholders are considered to be validated deliverables.

True
False
—True

Program managers are change agents.
—True

Project _____ management consists of preparing and managing the budget for a project.
—cost

Project _____ management includes estimating how long it will take to complete the work, developing an acceptable project schedule, and ensuring timely completion of a project.
—schedule

Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
—project charter

Project initiation involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed.
—False

Project integration management must occur just within the context of a particular project.
—False

Project management _____ describe the key competencies that project managers must develop.
—knowledge areas

Project managers and their teams must recognize the effects of any project on the interests and needs of the entire system or organization instead of focusing on the immediate concerns of the project.
—True

Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

True
False
—True

Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from various functional areas working on their projects.
—True

Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine _____.
—net present value

Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.

True
False
—True

Project managers must have cooperation from people in other parts of the organization.
—True

Project managers must take adequate time to identify, understand, and manage relationships with all project stakeholders.
—True

Project managers should lead projects in isolation in order to truly serve the needs of the organization.
—False

Project managers work with the project sponsors to define success for particular projects.
—True

Project procurement management mainly involves

-making effective use of the people involved with the project.
-buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.
-generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
-identifying and analyzing stakeholder needs while managing and controlling their engagement.
—buying goods and services for a project from outside the performing organization.

Project procurement management primarily involves identifying stakeholder needs while managing their engagement throughout the life of the project.
—False

Project resource management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with a project.
—True

Project schedules grow out of basic documents such as the project charter.

True
False
—True

Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.

True
False
—True

Project scope statements must include the project boundaries, constraints, and assumptions.

True
False
—False

Project work is most successful in an organizational culture where activities are organized around individuals.
—False

Projects must operate in a broad organizational environment, and project managers need to consider projects within the greater organizational context. Which approach describes the holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization?

-Linear analysis
-Systems thinking
-Reductionism
-The silo approach
—Systems thinking

Projects should be developed in increments.
—True

Projects that address broad organizational needs are likely to fail.
—False

Projects that arise as a result of problems and directives must be resolved quickly to avoid hurting an organization’s business.
—True

Questions about how a team will track schedule performance is related to a project’s scope.
—False

Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under unusual conditions.

True
False
—False

Reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track, is a common part of which process?

-executing
-closing
-monitoring and controlling
-planning
—monitoring and controlling

Responsibility assignment matrices and project organizational charts are examples of tools used in procurement management.
—False

Scope creep if not managed well can lead to the failure of information technology projects.

True
False
—True

Scope refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.

True
False
—True

Select an example of external stakeholders for an organization.

-Top managers
-Functional managers
-Employees
-Competitors
—Competitors

Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.

  • 1.34
  • 3.4
  • 34
  • 13.4
    —3.4

SMART criteria are guidelines suggesting that milestones should be _____.
—Specific, Measurable, Assignable, Realistic, Time-framed

Soft skills are also known as _____ skills.
—human relations

Soles is a footwear company which has recently set up its store in Ambrosia. To manufacture its products, Soles incurs a range of different costs. Which would be an example of an indirect cost?

  • Cost of machines to produce shoes
  • Salary paid to factory workers
  • Electricity used to run its factories
  • Cost of leather used to manufacture shoes
    —Electricity used to run its factories

Some organizations initiate projects using a contract in place of a project charter.
—True

Some organizations prescribe the form and content for WBSs for particular projects. These are known as _____.
—guidelines

Some projects have a senior manager called a(n) _____ who acts as a key advocate for a project.
—champion

Spreadsheets are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.

True
False
—True

Sprint planning is part of the basic ______.
—Scrum framework

Stakeholder analyses, work requests, and project charters are tools used in integration management.
—True

Standards and guidelines to follow when performing project management must be devised by top management.
—True

Start-to-finish relationships are the most frequently used dependencies between activities.

True
False
—False

Steve, an engineer in a construction company, is at present working on a home construction project. The home is being built for the Robinson family, the owners of the home. Steve is working with his project team and support staff to ensure the project is completed on time. In such a scenario, the project sponsor is _____.

-Steve
-the support staff
-the project team
-the Robinson family
—the Robinson family

Subdividing the project deliverables into smaller pieces is known as
—decomposition

Supporting details for an estimate include the ground rules and assumptions used in creating the estimate.

True
False
—True

Systems analysis addresses the business, technological, and organizational issues associated with creating, maintaining, and modifying a system.
—False

Team building exercises and motivation techniques are tools used in _____ management.

-procurement
-scope
-resources
-cost
—resources

Testing as a stage is important only at the end of an information technology product development.

True
False
—False

The _____ frame of an organization focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people.

-structural
-human resources
-political
-symbolic
—human resources

The _____ frame of an organization relates to the company’s culture.
—symbolic

The _____ frame of the organization is the one that is usually depicted in an organizational chart.
—structural

The _____ includes the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary.
—scope baseline

The _____ index is the ratio of earned value to planned value.
—schedule performance

The _____ is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule.
—activity list

The _____ is a very important tool in project management because it provides the basis for deciding how to do the work.
—WBS

The _____ is an international professional society for project managers founded in 1969.
—Project Management Institute

The _____ is based on the fact that any complex system at any point in time often has only one aspect or constraint that limits its ability to achieve more of its goal.
—Theory of Constraints

The _____ is the discount rate that results in an NPV of zero for a project.
—internal rate of return (IRR)

The _____ is the measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.
—earned value

The _____ life cycle model is suitable for projects in which changes can be incorporated with reasonable cost increases or acceptable time delays.
—spiral

The _____ life cycle model is used when risk must be tightly controlled and when changes must be restricted after the requirements are defined.
—waterfall

The _____ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.
—cost of non-conformance

The _____ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.
—SQFD
Software Quality Function Deployment
Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD)
SQFD (Software Quality Function Deployment)

The _____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype, using tools such as computer-aided software engineering, joint requirements planning, and joint application design to facilitate rapid prototyping and code generation.

-prototyping life cycle
-waterfall life cycle
-RAD life cycle
-spiral life cycle
—RAD life cycle

The _____ of project management includes quality, scope, time, and cost constraints.
—quadruple constraint

The _____ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.
—yield

The _____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable.
—customer

The activity list should include the _____, an activity identifier, and a brief description of the activity
—activity name

The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates is known as a(n) _____.
—overrun

The arrows in a network diagram represent missed milestones in a project.

True
False
—False

The best way to sustain a project is to withhold the required money, human resources, and visibility for the project.
—False

The burndown chart is a Scrum created artifact that provides a list of features prioritized by business value.
—False

The cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period is known as the _____.
—actual cost

The cost performance index can be used to calculate the _____ which gives an approximate cost of completing a project based on performance to date.
—estimate at completion

The critical path is the _____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the _____ amount of slack or float.

-longest; longest
-longest; shortest
-shortest; longest
-shortest; shortest
—longest; shortest

The critical path on a project can change as the project progresses.

True
False
—True

The design of experiments technique cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

True
False
—False

The DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control) methodology of the Six Sigma projects, is used to improve an existing business process.
—True

The enterprise project management software, which aids project and portfolio management, is a low-end tool.
—False

The executing process group generally requires the most resources.
—True

The executing tasks of the WBS remain constant from project to project.

True
False
—False

The final process in project schedule management is developing the schedule.

True
False
—False

The format of the WBS dictionary is essentially the same for all projects.

True
False
—False

The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.

True
False
—True

The ideal outcome of the _____ process group is to complete a project successfully by delivering the agreed-upon project scope within time, cost, and quality constraints.
—monitoring and controlling

The importance of stakeholders’ needs and expectations is limited to the beginning of a project.
—False

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines _____ as “the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.”
—quality

The introduction of new software makes basic tools, such as Gantt charts and network diagrams, inexpensive and easy to create
—True

The kick-off meeting is always held before the business case and project charter are completed.
—False

The last phase of the traditional project life cycle is the implementation phase.
—False

The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project.
—True

The main disadvantage of crashing is that it lengthens the time needed to finish a project.

True
False
—False

The main goal of which process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements?

  • cost budgeting
  • cost planning
  • cost controlling
  • cost estimating
    —cost budgeting

The main output of the planning cost management process is a(n) _____.
—cost management plan

The main outputs of _____ include work performance information, schedule forecasts, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.
—schedule control

The main outputs of _____are the project scope statement and updates to project documents.
—scope definition

The main outputs of scope definition are the _____ and project document updates.
—project scope statement

The main outputs of the _____ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.
—cost budgeting

The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
—cost estimating

The main outputs of which process are a quality management plan, quality metrics, project management plan updates, and project documents updates?

  • controlling quality
  • planning quality management
  • quality certification
  • performing quality assurance
    —planning quality management

The main purpose of the WBS is to define all of the work required to complete a project.

True
False
—True

The main tool for performing scope validation is _____ and group decision making techniques.
—inspection

The most time and money should be spent on ______.
—executing
execution
project execution

The nature of hardware development projects is more diverse than software-oriented projects.
—False

The number of interfaces in a single project is limited, and does not depend on the number of people involved in the project.
—True

The only responsibility of a project manager is to meet the specific scope, time, and cost goals of a project.
—False

The organization recognizes that a new project exists and completes a project charter during which processes for a new project?

-initiating
-planning
-opening
-controlling
—initiating

The organization should complete low-priority projects before high-priority ones, if the low-priority ones take less time.
—False

The output of the stakeholder management strategy results is a project charter.
—False

The outputs of which process include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—monitoring and controlling

The pre-initiation phase of a project using the Scrum method does not involve project charters, stakeholder management strategy, and kick-off meetings
—False

The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.

True
False
—False

The primary role of project stakeholder management is to ensure that the project will satisfy the stated needs for which it was undertaken.
—False

The project cost management knowledge area maps to which process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—planning

The project management plan and project funding requirements are inputs of the process of controlling costs.

True
False
—True

The project management plan is the output of which project planning process?

-integration management
-quality management
-scope management
-procurement management
—integration management

The project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a WBS.

True
False
—True

The project organizational structure is the most efficient choice for most IT projects.
—False

The project schedule management knowledge area maps to which process group through the activity of schedule control?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—monitoring and controlling

The project scope management knowledge area maps to which process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—monitoring and controlling

The project scope statement should reference supporting documents, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.

True
False
—True

The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to which process group by identifying stakeholders?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—initiating

The project’s size, complexity, importance, and other factors do not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.

True
False
—False

The purpose of _____ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
—project quality management

The question, “What is the project’s schedule?” is an example of a(n) _____ constraint.
—time

The question, “What unique product, service, or result does the customer or sponsor expect from the project?” is an example of a(n) _____ constraint.
—scope

The Rational Unified Process (RUP) framework is incompatible with the PMBOK process.
—False

The ROI is always positive.
—False

The role of a _____ is to provide direction and funding for a project.

-Project sponsor
-Project manager
-Support staff member
-Project team
—Project sponsor

The same organization can have different subcultures.
—True

The scope baseline in a WBS consists of the requirements documentation and enterprise environmental factors.

True
False
—False

The scope management plan can be informal and broad or formal and detailed, based on the needs of the project.

True
False
—True

The scope of a project is clear and specific from the start.

True
False
—False

The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance.

True
False
—True

The symbolic perspective of an organization:

-focuses on different groups’ roles and responsibilities to meet the goals and policies set by top management.
-views the organization as coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups.
-focuses on providing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of people.
-focuses on the meanings of the culture, language, traditions, and image of the organization.
—focuses on the meanings of the culture, language, traditions, and image of the organization.

The tasks in a WBS must be developed as a sequential list of steps.

True
False
—False

The team members of a virtual team are all of the same nationality.
—False

The technique of fast tracking can result in lengthening the project schedule.

True
False
—True

The term _____ means a product can be used as it was intended.
—fitness for use

The term “_____” refers to work done in organizations to sustain the business.
—Operations

The term sigma means median.

True
False
—False

The three spheres of systems management are business, organization, and _____.
—technology

The time frame for a(n) _____ estimate is often three or more years prior to project completion.
—rough order of magnitude (ROM)

The two main items for monitoring and controlling in the Scrum framework are the daily Scrum and the sprint retrospectives.
—True

The ultimate goal of developing a realistic project schedule is to provide a basis for monitoring project progress for the _____ dimension of the project.
—time

The WBS provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance.
—True

Three general classifications of organizational structures are _____, project, and matrix.
—functional

To be a successful manager, the only skills an IT project manager needs to possess are excellent technical skills.
—False

To define activities, the project team should start with reviewing the schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational processes.

True
False
—True

Until the 1980s, project management primarily focused on providing _____ and resource data to top management in the military, computer, and construction industries.
—schedule

Until the 1980s, project management primarily focused on providing schedule and resource data to top management in the military, computer, and construction industries.
—True

Using a systems approach is critical to successful project management.
—True

Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment and all employees must embrace its principles.

True
False
—True

Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the ____ subprocess of project quality management.

initiating.
closing
controlling
executing
—controlling

Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost from which value?

  • earned value
  • schedule variance
  • planned value
  • rate of performance
    —earned value

Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) _____ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.
—software defect

What actions result in improvements in project performance?

-Corrective
-Defective
-Preventive
-Acceptance plan
—Corrective

What are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence referred to as?

-Opportunities
-Charters
-Problems
-Directives
—Directives

What are tangible and intangible costs? Distinguish between direct and indirect costs and give examples of each.
—Tangible and intangible costs and benefits are categories for determining how well anorganization can define the estimated costs and benefits for a project. Tangible costs or benefits are those costs or benefits that an organization can easily measure in dollars

Conversely, intangible costs or benefits are costs or benefits that are difficult to measure in monetary terms. Intangible benefits for projects often include items like goodwill, prestige, and general statements of improved productivity that an organization cannot easily translate into dollar amounts. Because intangible costs and benefits are difficult to quantify, they are often harder to justify.

Direct costs are costs that can be directly related to producing the products and services of the project. One can attribute direct costs directly to a certain project. Project managers should focus on direct costs, since they can control them. For example, direct costs include the salaries of people working full time on the project and the cost of hardware and software purchased specifically for the project. Indirect costs are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. For example, the cost of electricity, paper towels, and so on in a large building housing a thousand employees who work on many projects would be indirect costs. Indirect costs are allocated to projects, and project managers have very little control over them.

What are the five major cost categories related to quality? Briefly describe each category.
—Prevention cost: The cost of planning and executing a project so that it is error-free or within an acceptable error range. Preventive actions such as training, detailed studies related to quality, and quality surveys of suppliers and subcontractors fall under this category. Detecting defects in information systems during the early phases of the systems development life cycle is much less expensive than during the later phases. One hundred dollars spent refining user requirements could save millions by finding a defect before implementing a large system. The Year 2000 (Y2K) issue provides a good example of these costs. If organizations had decided during the 1960s, 1970s, and 1980s that all dates would need four characters to represent the year instead of two characters, they would have saved billions of dollars.

Appraisal cost: The cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. Activities such as inspection and testing of products, maintenance of inspection and test equipment, and processing and reporting inspection data all contribute to appraisal costs of quality.

Internal failure cost: A cost incurred to correct an identified defect before the customer receives the product. Items such as scrap and rework, charges related to late payment of bills, inventory costs that are a direct result of defects, costs of engineering changes related to correcting a design error, premature failure of products, and correcting documentation all contribute to internal failure cost.

External failure cost: A cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. Items such as warranty cost, field service personnel training cost, product liability suits, complaint handling, and future business losses are examples of external failure costs.

Measurement and test equipment costs: The capital cost of equipment used to perform prevention and appraisal activities.

What are the five phases in the DMAIC process? Briefly describe each one.
—Define: Define the problem/opportunity, process, and customer requirements. Important tools used in this phase include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. Examples of VOC data include complaints, surveys, comments, and market research that represent the views and needs of the organization’s customers.Measure: Define measures, then collect, compile, and display data.

Measures are defined in terms of defects per opportunity.

Analyze: Scrutinize process details to find improvement opportunities. A project team working on a Six Sigma project, normally referred to as a Six Sigma team, investigates and verifies data to prove the suspected root causes of quality problems and substantiates the problem statement. An important tool in this phase is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.

Improve: Generate solutions and ideas for improving the problem. A final solution is verified with the project sponsor, and the Six Sigma team develops a plan to pilot test the solution. The Six Sigma team reviews the results of the pilot test to refine the solution, if needed, and then implements the solution where appropriate.

Control: Track and verify the stability of the improvements and the predictability of the solution. Control charts are one tool used in the control phase.

What are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users?

  • features
  • outputs
  • yields
  • metrics
    —Features

What are the three basic types of cost estimating? Describe each type.
—The three basic types of cost estimating are as follows:

(1) A rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate provides an estimate of what a project will cost. This type of estimate is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. Project managers and top management use this estimate to help make project selection decisions. The timeframe for this type of estimate is often three or more years prior to project completion. A ROM estimate’s accuracy is typically -50 percent to +100 percent, which means that the project’s actual costs could be 50 percent below the ROM estimate or 100 percent above. For information technology project estimates, this accuracy range is often much wider.

(2) A budgetary estimate is used to allocate money into an organization’s budget. Many organizations develop budgets at least two years into the future. Budgetary estimates are made one to two years prior to project completion. The accuracy of budgetary estimates is typically -10 percent to +25 percent, meaning the actual costs could be 10 percent less or 25 percent more than the budgetary estimate.

(3) A definitive estimate provides an accurate estimate of project costs. Definitive estimates are used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion. A definitive estimate should be the most accurate of the three types of estimates. The accuracy of this type of estimate is normally -5 percent to +10 percent, meaning the actual costs could be 5 percent less or 10 percent more than the definitive estimate.

What are the three main outcomes of quality control? Briefly describe each.
—Acceptance decisions determine if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. If they are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables. If project stakeholders reject some of the products or services produced as part of the project, there must be rework.

Rework is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. Rework often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, resulting from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions. Rework can be very expensive, so the project manager must strive to do a good job of quality planning and quality assurance to avoid this need.

Process adjustments correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements. Process adjustments are often found by using quality control measurements, and they often result in updates to the quality baseline, organization process assets, and the project management plan.

What cost is the price of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range?

  • prevention cost
  • appraisal cost
  • internal failure cost
  • external failure cost
    —appraisal cost

What document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project’s execution and control?

-project management plan
-statement of work
-scope statement
-business case
—project management plan

What does the process of controlling costs primarily involve?

  • determining the policies for project costs

  • managing changes to the project budget

  • finalising the procedures for project costs

-determining a basis for estimates
—managing changes to the project budget

What important Scrum artifact is used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process?

-WBS
-sprint backlog
-burndown chart
-product backlog
—burndown chart

What is a difference between low-end and midrange tools of the project management software?

-Low-end tools are designed to handle primarily multiple users whereas midrange tools are created to handle single users.
-Low-end tools provide robust capabilities to handle dispersed workgroups whereas midrange tools do not.
-Midrange tools provide basic project management features whereas low-end tools offer enterprise and portfolio management functions.
-Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools.
—Midrange tools are designed to handle larger projects than low-end tools.

What is a rough order of magnitude estimate also referred to as?

  • definitive
  • budgetary
  • final
  • ballpark
    —ballpark

What is a table that lists requirements, their various attributes, and the status of the requirements to ensure that all are addressed referred to as?

-requirements traceability matrix
-Gantt chart
-state transition table
-entity-attribute-value model
—requirements traceability matrix

What is an accurate difference between the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM)?

-CPM addresses the risk associated with duration estimates whereas PERT does not.

-Unlike CPM, PERT estimates only when there is no risk of uncertainty.

-CPM involves more work than PERT because it requires several duration estimates.

-PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.
—PERT uses different duration estimates whereas CPM uses one specific duration estimate.

What is another term used for budget?

  • earned value
  • actual cost
  • indirect cost
  • planned value
    —planned value

What is developed in the Project Integration Management knowledge area?

-schedule management plan
-project management plan
-WBS
-quality management
—project management plan

What is often the most difficult and unappreciated process in project management?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—planning

What is one of the main outputs of the initiation process?

-creating the work breakdown structure
-selecting the project manager
-developing the project charter
-identifying the project sponsor
—developing the project charter

What is scope creep?

-the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger
-subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces
-the approved project scope statement and its associated WBS.
-a task at the lowest level of the WBS
—the tendency for project scope to keep getting bigger and bigger

What is the first process involved in project schedule management?

-defining activities
-estimating activity durations
-planning schedule management
-sequencing activities
—planning schedule management

What is the first step in determining the NPV?

-determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces
-determine the discount rate
-calculate the net present value
-determine the cash flow
—determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces

What is the first step in project cost management?

  • allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources
  • plan how costs will be managed
  • control project costs and monitor cost performance
  • develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources
    —plan how costs will be managed

What is the first step in the planning process?

-tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization’s overall strategic plan
-perform a business area analysis
-start defining potential IT projects in terms of their scope, benefits, and constraints
-choose which projects to do and assigning resources to work on them
—tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization’s overall strategic plan

What is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date?

-early finish date
-late finish date
-late start date
-early start date
—late start date

What is the main purpose of project plans?

-schedule management plans
-define project scope
-estimate activity resources
-guide project execution
—guide project execution

What is the main technique used in creating a WBS, which involves subdividing project deliverables into smaller pieces?

-conglomeration
-accumulation
-decomposition
-catalyzation
—decomposition

What is the majority of time on a project is usually spent on?

-execution
-planning
-closing
-monitoring and controlling
—execution

What is the project’s budget? This is an example of a project’s _____ constraint.
—cost

What is the purpose of a cost performance index (CPI)?

  • indicate that a project is under budget if CPI is less than one
  • estimate the projected cost of completing the project
  • indicate that the planned and actual costs are equal if CPI is more than one
  • estimate the ratio of earned value to planned value
    —estimate the projected cost of completing the project

What process group does the project integration management knowledge area map to through the activities of developing project charters?

-initiating
-planning
-executing
-monitoring and controlling
—initiating

What process involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders?

-Scope validation
-Scope planning
-Scope control
-Scope baseline
—Scope validation

What process involves identifying and controlling the functional and physical design characteristics of products and their support documentation, and ensures that the descriptions of the project’s products are correct and complete?

-NPV analysis
-Project management information systems
-Configuration management
-Project time management
—Configuration management

What process is used to generate ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization?

  • prototyping
  • systems thinking
  • mind mapping
  • benchmarking
    —benchmarking

What process provides enterprise environmental factors as an output?

-project integration management
-project quality management
-project human resource management
-project procurement management
—project human resource management

What processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase?

-Initiating
-Executing
-Planning
-Monitoring and controlling
—Initiating

What processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization’s needs?

-Initiating
-Planning
-Executing
-Monitoring and controlling
—Planning

What statement is true regarding a return on investment or ROI?

-It is always a percentage.
-It is always a positive number.
-It is the result of adding the project costs to the profits.
-The lower it is, the better.
—It is always a percentage.

What term is used for a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed)?

  • skewed distribution
  • normal distribution
  • bimodal distribution
  • degenerate distribution
    —normal distribution

What term is used for analogous estimates?

  • bottom-up
  • top-down
  • parametric
  • budgetary
    —top-down

What term is used for any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements?

  • defect
  • yield
  • deliverable
  • variance
    —defect

What term is used for benefits minus costs?

-cost of capital
-cash flow
-discount factor
-opportunity cost of capital
—cash flow

What term is used for the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions?

  • reliability
  • performance
  • maintainability
  • functionality
    —reliability

What term is used for the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date?

-total slack
-free float
-backward pass
-forward pass
—total slack

What term is used for the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities?

-forward pass
-backward pass
-fast tracking
-free slack
—free slack

What term is used for the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment?

-capitalization rate
-internal rate of return
-discount rate
-required rate of return
—required rate of return

What tool provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance?

-scope statement
-cost management plan
-work breakdown structure
-project charter
—work breakdown structure

What type of analysis involves calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time?

-Cost of capital
-Net present value
-Cash flow
-Payback
—Net present value

What type of estimate is a cost estimation tool that involves estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total?

  • budgetary
  • parametric
  • bottom-up
  • analogous
    —bottom-up

What type of estimate is a cost estimation tool used to allocate money into an organization’s budget?

  • budgetary
  • definitive
  • rough order of magnitude
  • ballpark
    —budgetary

What type of estimate is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs?

  • budgetary
  • definitive
  • rough order of magnitude
  • final
    —definitive

What type of management includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget?

  • project scope management
  • project quality management
  • project time management
  • project cost management
    —project cost management

When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, one should include sunk costs.

True
False
—False

When does payback occur?

-When the net cumulative benefits minus costs equal one
-When the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs
-When the net costs are lower than the cumulative benefits
-When the cumulative benefits are double the cumulative costs
—When the net cumulative benefits equal the net cumulative costs

When using project management software, estimates of work time should be entered only at the work package level; the rest of the WBS items are just groupings or _____ tasks.
—summary

When you separate business and organizational issues from project management planning, you do a better job of ensuring project success.
—False

Where would a draft schedule for a project most likely be found?

-project buffer
-project charter
-resource breakdown structure
-project’s dummy activities list
—project charter

Which action involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them?

-Collecting requirements
-Defining scope
-Controlling scope
-Validating scope
—Collecting requirements

Which action involves normalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables?

-Creating scope
-Defining scope
-Controlling scope
-Validating scope
—Validating scope

Which action involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved?

-Creating scope
-Defining scope
-Controlling scope
-Validating scope
—Defining scope

Which activity is a part of the Scrum planning process?

-Determining how many sprints will compose each release
-Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting
-Completing tasks each day during sprints
-Creating sprint backlog
—Creating sprint backlog

Which addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use?

  • reliability
  • performance
  • maintainability
  • functionality
    —performance

Which addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product?

  • reliability
  • performance
  • maintainability
  • functionality
    —maintainability

Which approach for constructing a WBS involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail?

-analogy
-bottom-up
-top-down
-mind mapping
—top-down

Which approach for constructing a WBS starts with the largest items of the project and breaks them into subordinate items?

-analogy
-bottom-up
-top-down
-mind mapping
—top-down

Which approach for constructing a WBS uses a similar project’s WBS as a starting point?

-top-down
-bottom-up
-mind-mapping
-analogy
—analogy

Which approach to product development is currently used by many organizations so a predictive set of steps is used as an overall means to coordinate more detailed steps that are adaptively managed?

-Adaptive
-Hybrid
-Predictive
-Incremental
—Hybrid

Which are outputs of the executing process of project integration management?

-Deliverables
-Issue logs
-Resource calendars
-Enterprise environmental factor updates
—Deliverables

Which attribute best defines the role of leaders?

-They focus on short-term objectives.
-They work on achieving primarily tactical goals.
-They work solely toward day-to-day details of meeting specific tasks
-They inspire people to reach goals.
—They inspire people to reach goals.

Which attribute is true of low-end tools of project management software?

-They are designed for especially large projects with multiple users.
-Their main advantage is that they have unlimited functionality.
-They provide basic project management features.
-They are referred to as enterprise project management software.
—They provide basic project management features.

Which characteristic highlights a difference between projects and operations?

-Projects are undertaken to sustain an organization’s business whereas operations are not.
-Operations are undertaken to create unique products, services, or results whereas projects are not.
-Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization’s operations are ongoing in nature.
-Operations have well-defined objectives whereas projects do not need to have a unique purpose.
—Projects are temporary endeavors whereas an organization’s operations are ongoing in nature.

Which characteristic is true of virtual teams?

-It is easier for a virtual team to build relationships and trust.
-Negative incentives do not impact virtual team members.
-It is important to select team members carefully.
-As they never meet, virtual teams do not have conflicts.
—It is important to select team members carefully.

Which characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management’s decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization?

-Member identity
-Group emphasis
-People focus
-Unit integration
—People focus

Which characteristic of organizational culture refers to the degree to which departments within an organization are encouraged to coordinate with each other?

-Member identity
-People focus
-Group emphasis
-Unit integration
—Unit integration

Which characteristic of organizational culture refers to the degree to which employees identify with the organization as a whole, rather than with their types of job or profession?

-Member identity
-People focus
-Group emphasis
-Unit integration
—Member identity

Which characteristic of organizational culture refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment?

-Means-ends orientation
-Open-systems focus
-Conflict tolerance
-Risk tolerance
—Open-systems focus

Which chart helps users identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system?

  • Gantt
  • pareto
  • control
  • tracking Gantt
    —pareto

Which costs are difficult to measure in monetary terms?

  • Intangible costs
  • Direct costs
  • Tangible costs
  • Fixed costs
    —Intangible costs

Which dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care because they may limit later scheduling options?

-mandatory
-discretionary
-external
-inherent
—discretionary

Which dependencies do AOA network diagrams use?

-start-to-start
-finish-to-start
-finish-to-finish
-start-to-finish
—finish-to-start

Which dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities?

-mandatory
-discretionary
-external
-inherent
—external

Which document contains a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project?

-project charter
-business case
-project scope statement
-work breakdown structure
—work breakdown structure

Which document is most likely to include planned project start and end dates which serve as the starting points for a detailed schedule?

-resource breakdown structure
-milestones list
-organizational process assets update
-project charter
—project charter

Which document recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project’s objectives and management?

-stakeholder register
-risk register
-Directive
-project charter
—project charter

Which document should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project?

-project charter
-scope statement
-WBS
-Gantt chart
—scope statement

Which five-phase improvement process do projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow?

  • DMAIC.
  • weighted scoring model
  • configuration management
  • use case modeling
    —DMAIC

Which framework is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members?

-Agile Unified Process
-Dynamic Systems Development Method
-Rational Unified Process
-Six Sigma
—Rational Unified Process

Which goal distinguishes project management and portfolio management?

-Project management involves making wise investment decisions whereas portfolio management does not.
-Portfolio management is an easy task whereas project management is a more difficult task.
-Portfolio management asks questions like, “Are we carrying out projects efficiently?” whereas project management asks questions such as “Are we investing in the right areas?”
-Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.
—Project management addresses specific, short-term goals whereas portfolio management focuses on long-term goals.

Which graphic display of data illustrates the results of a process over time?

  • statistical sampling chart
  • Pareto chart
  • Six Sigma chart
  • control chart
    —control chart

Which information is included in a business case?
-business need for the project
-relevant government or industry standards
-project objective, high-level requirements, and time and cost goals
-policies, procedures, guidelines, and systems that influence a project’s success
—project objective, high-level requirements, and time and cost goals

Which is a disadvantage for virtual teams compared to traditional teams?

-Increased costs for office space and support
-Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information
-Limited flexibility in team working hours
-Reduced dependence on technology and processes for accomplishing work
—Reduced opportunities for informal transfer of information

Which is a measure of quality control equal to one fault in one million opportunities problems?

  • ISO 9000
  • six 9s of quality rule
  • seven run rule
  • Six Sigma rule
    —six 9s of quality rule

Which is a similarity between scope control and schedule control?

-Both are initial processes of project time management.

-Both of their primary goals is to define project goals and milestones.

-Both are portions of the integrated change control process under project integration management.

-Both of these processes should occur before estimating activity durations.
—Both are portions of the integrated change control process under project integration management.

Which is a similarity between the crashing and fast tracking?

-both spread out tasks over a long period of time to ensure the quality of work is maintained

-both invariably result in increases in total project costs

-both can shorten the time needed to finish a project

-both are network diagramming techniques used primarily to predict total project duration
—both can shorten the time needed to finish a project

Which is an example of a pre-initiation task?

-Drawing up a work breakdown structure
-Developing a business case for a project
-Drafting the project charter
-Identifying stakeholders
—Developing a business case for a project

Which is an example of an organizational process asset?

-Management systems
-The organization’s infrastructure
-Government standards
-Marketplace conditions
—Management systems

Which is an input of the process of controlling costs?

  • cost forecasts
  • work performance data
  • change requests
  • scope baseline
    —work performance data

Which is an output of schedule control?

-change requests
-activity attributes
-resource requirements
-milestones lists
—change requests

Which is an output of the process of controlling costs?

  • cost forecasts
  • project funding requirements
  • basis of estimates
  • scope baselines
    —cost forecasts

Which is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates?

  • Estimates take a long time to be worked out.
  • People lack estimating experience.
  • Human beings are biased toward overestimation.
  • Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.
    —People lack estimating experience.

Which is one of the main outputs of estimating activity resources process?

-project documents update
-milestone list
-breakdown structure
-activity duration estimate
—project documents update

Which is recommended for the creation of a good WBS?

-Any WBS item should be the responsibility of all the people working on it.
-A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
-Each WBS item should be created assuming that the requirements are inflexible.
-The work content of a WBS item is independent of the WBS items below it.
—A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.

Which is true about the agile method?

-It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle.
-It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later.
-It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.
-It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.
—It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product.

Which is true of a finish-to-finish dependency?

-It is a dependency in which the “from” activity cannot start until the “to” activity or successor is started.

-It is a dependency in which in which the “from” activity must finish before the “to” activity or successor can start.

-It is a dependency in which the “from” activity must be finished before the “to” activity can be finished.

-It is a dependency in which the “from” activity must start before the “to” activity can be finished.
—It is a dependency in which the “from” activity must be finished before the “to” activity can be finished.

Which is true of dummy activities?

-They have long durations.

-They show logical relationships between activities.

-They have a large range of resources.

-They have limited time periods.
—They have long durations.

Which is true of earned value?

  • It is the actual cost plus the planned cost.
  • It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity.
  • It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
  • It is also known as the planned value.
    —It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.

Which is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)?

  • It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
  • It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one.
  • It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent.
  • It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs.
    —It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.

Which knowledge area involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully?

-Project resource management
-Project scope management
-Project time management
-Project cost management
—Project scope management

Which law states that work expands to fill the time allowed?

-Murphy’s Law
-Miller’s Law
-Parkinson’s Law
-Einstein’s Law
—Parkinson’s Law

Which method is used for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project?

  • Critical path analysis
  • Cash flow analysis
  • Present value analysis
  • Requirements analysis

Which network diagramming technique uses boxes to represent activities?

-PDM
-CPM
-ADM
-PERT
—PDM

Which objective is true of projects?

-They have an indefinite beginning and end
-They have a unique purpose
-They are developed using regressive elaboration
-They are permanent in nature
—They have a unique purpose.

Which observation is true of the agile approach to software development?

-In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration.
-An agile approach sets scope goals, but leaves time and cost goals flexible.
-Agile is a predictive model of software development.
-In the agile approach, requirements must be clearly expressed early in the life cycle.
—In the agile method, requirements and solutions evolve through collaboration.

Which of the following best describes a kill point in the project life cycle?

-The period of time given to managers during the feasibility phases to decide on the cost, quality, and time constraints for the project
-A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated
-The point of time in the project lifecycle after which it is impossible to terminate a running project
-The final submission of the project deliverables after which the project is terminated
—A review of the status of a project at each phase of development to determine if it should be continued, redirected, or terminated

Which of the following is true of a matrix organizational structure?

-In a matrix organizational structure, employees are organized into departments according to their skills, and there is little interaction between employees from different departments.
-Project managers in matrix organizations have staff from only a single functional area working on their projects.
-In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.
-A matrix organizational structure is hierarchical, but instead of functional managers reporting to the CEO, program managers report to the CEO.
—In a strong matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority.

Which of the following is true of program managers?

-They report to project managers who represent the next level in the hierarchy.
-They recognize that managing a program is simpler than managing a project.
-They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program.
-They are responsible solely for the delivery of project results.
—They provide leadership and direction for project managers heading the projects within a program.

Which of the following is true of the project life cycle?

-In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest.
-In the later phases of the project life cycle, the level of uncertainty is usually the highest.
-It is much more expensive to make major changes to a project during the earlier phases than the latter phases.
-More resources are usually needed during the initial phases of a project than during the middle or final phases.
—In the early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually lowest.

Which of the following questions reflects the strategic goals of project portfolio management?

-Are we carrying out projects well?
-Are projects on time and on budget?
-Are we investing in the right areas?
-Do stakeholders know what they should be doing?
—Are we investing in the right areas?

Which of the following refers to a set of principles that guides decision making based on personal values of what is considered right and wrong?

-Ethics
-Civics
-Laws
-Politics
—Ethics

Which organization provides certification as a Project Management Professional?

-PMS
-PMC
-PMI
-PMP
—PMI

Which output documents how project needs will be analyzed, documented, and managed?

-requirements traceability matrix
-requirements management plan
-WBS
-project scope statement
—requirements management plan

Which perspective of an organization focuses on different groups’ roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management?

-Structural frame
-Human resources frame
-Political frame
-Symbolic frame
—Structural frame

Which perspective on organizations assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups?

-Political frame
-Symbolic frame
-Structural frame
-Human resource frame
—Political frame

Which phase of the DMAIC process includes tools such as a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data?

  • define
  • measure
  • analyze
  • improve
    —define

Which planning process is associated with project scope management?

-Collecting requirements
-Performing qualitative risk analysis
-Planning schedule management
-Estimating costs
—Collecting requirements

Which planning process is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area?

-Schedule development
-Developing a project management plan
-Creation of a WBS
-Quality planning
—Creation of a WBS

Which problem-solving approach requires defining the scope of a system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs?

-Linear programming
-Independent component analysis
-Principal component analysis
-Systems analysis
—Systems analysis

Which process correct(s) or prevent(s) quality problems based on quality control measurements?

  • process adjustments.
  • rework
  • acceptance decisions
  • decomposition
    —process adjustments.

Which process helps develop an accurate projection of a project’s financial expenses and benefits?

  • path analysis
  • fast tracking
  • life cycle costing
  • crashing
    —life cycle costing

Which process helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes?

  • SQFD
  • MTBI
  • OPM3
  • CMMI
    —CMMI

Which process in project schedule management involves identifying the specific tasks that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables?

-defining activities
-sequencing activities
-developing the schedule
-estimating activity durations
—defining activities

Which process includes defining project scope, benefits, and constraints?

-project planning
-business area analysis
-resource allocation
-information technology strategy planning
—project planning

Which process includes measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan?

-Planning
-Monitoring and controlling
-Executing
-Initiating
—Monitoring and controlling

Which process involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance?

  • determining the budget.
  • finalizing policies for project costs
  • controlling costs
  • estimating costs
    —determining the budget.

Which process involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection?

  • statistical sampling
  • conformance
  • system testing
  • fitness for use
    —statistical sampling

Which process involves developing a working replica of the system or some aspect of the system?

-Prototyping
-Variance
-Decomposition
-Use case modeling
—Prototyping

Which process involves developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete a project?

  • determining the budget
  • finalising the cost baseline
  • controlling costs
  • estimating costs
    —estimating costs

Which process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end?

-executing
-closing
-planning
-monitoring
—closing

Which process involves generating ideas by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products inside or outside the performing organization?

-variance
-benchmarking
-prototyping
-decomposition
—benchmarking

Which process involves identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them?

-Prototyping
-JAD
-RAD
-Use case modeling
—Use case modeling

Which process involves selecting information technology projects and assigning resources?

-project planning
-business area analysis
-resource allocation
-information technology strategy planning
—resource allocation

Which process involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project?

-Developing the project charter
-Developing the preliminary project scope statement
-Developing the project management plan
-Developing the organizational process assets updates
—Developing the project management plan

Which process involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project?

-Developing the project charter
-Developing the preliminary project scope statement
-Developing the project management plan
-Performing integrated change control
—Developing the project charter

Which process is an action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations?

  • process adjustment
  • rework
  • acceptance decision
  • validation
    —rework

Which process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling?

  • quality planning
  • quality certification
  • quality assurance
  • quality control
    —quality control

Which process is undertaken to reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

-Performance reports
-Preventive actions
-Defect repairs
-Corrective actions
—Preventive actions

Which process results in a cost baseline as a main output?

  • cost controlling
  • cost estimating
  • cost budgeting.
  • cost planning
    ---- cost budgeting.

Which process uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems?

-Prototyping
-JAD
-RAD
-Use case modeling
—JAD

Which processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements?

-monitoring and controlling
-executing
-planning
-initiating
—executing

Which project management knowledge area ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken?

-Project cost management
-Project time management
-Project risk management
-Project quality management
—Project quality management

Which project management knowledge area is an overarching function that affects and is affected by the different knowledge areas?

-Project cost management
-Project stakeholder management
-Project integration management
-Project communications management
—Project integration management

Which project management knowledge area primarily involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information?

-Project cost management
-Project procurement management
-Project time management
-Project communications management
—Project communications management

Which project would be compatible with the use of the agile approach?

-Projects with inexperienced and dispersed teams
-Projects that have a fairly rigid completion date
-Projects with clear-up front requirements
-Projects that have more flexible scheduling
—Projects that have more flexible scheduling

Which provide a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format?

-Gantt charts
-Critical path analysis
-Arrow diagramming method
-PERT analysis
—Gantt charts

Which reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable?

  • Contingency reserves
  • Management reserves
  • Known unknowns
  • Cost baseline reserves
    —Management reserves

Which section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information?

-management objectives
-project controls
-risk management
-technical processes
—technical processes

Which section of the project management plan includes external interfaces, internal structure, as well as roles and responsibilities?

-overview
-technical processes
-project organization
-supporting processes
—project organization

Which section of the project management plan provides the planned cost of deliverables?

-objectives
-budget
-risk
-technical
—budget

Which section of the project plan lists the planned dates for completing key deliverables?

-schedule
-closing
-budget
-objectives
—schedule

Which stage of information technology planning outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology?

-project planning
-business area analysis
-resource allocation
-information technology strategy planning
—business area analysis

Which statement best defines cost variance?

  • planned value plus actual costs
  • earned value minus the actual cost
  • rate of performance minus earned value
  • planned value minus the rate of performance
    —earned value minus the actual cost

Which statement best defines schedule variance?

  • earned value minus the planned value
  • earned value minus the actual cost
  • planned value plus the earned value
  • planned value plus the rate of performance
    —earned value minus the planned value

Which statement best describes outsourcing?

-An organization selling its products in a market outside its domestic market
-An organization’s acquisition of goods and services from an outside source
-An organization setting up manufacturing and retailing facilities in a new country
-An organization’s use of virtual teams with employees located in different countries
—An organization’s acquisition of goods and services from an outside source

Which statement best describes scope?

-each level of work that is outlined in a work breakdown structure

-end product created as part of a project that is delivered to the client

-tasks that are decomposed into smaller tasks in a work breakdown structure

-work involved in creating the products and the processes used to create them
—work involved in creating the products and the processes used to create them

Which statement best describes the difference between an activity list and an activity attribute?

-As opposed to an activity attribute, an activity list provides resource requirements and constraints related to activities.

-An activity list provides a more concrete list of milestones for a project than an activity attribute.

-An activity attribute is a tabulation of activities to be included on a project schedule whereas an activity list is not.

-An activity attribute provides more schedule-related information about each activity than an activity list.
—An activity attribute provides more schedule-related information about each activity than an activity list.

Which statement is one of Deming’s 14 Points for Management?

  • An organization should increase dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
  • Award business based on price tag alone rather than on other considerations.
  • Minimize total cost by working with multiple suppliers rather than a single supplier.
  • Eliminate the annual rating or merit system.
    —Eliminate the annual rating or merit system.

Which statement is one of Juran’s ten steps to quality improvement?

  • An organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals.
  • An organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators.
  • An organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
  • An organization should avoid “keeping score” in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.
    —An organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.

Which statement is true of a order of magnitude estimate?

  • It is used to allocate money into an organization’s budget.
  • It provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
  • Its timeframe is always less than a year prior to project completion.
  • It is a type of estimate that is done in the final stages of a project.
    —It provides an estimate of what a project will cost.

Which statement is true of analogous estimates?

  • Their main disadvantage is that they cost more than other techniques.
  • They are the only technique which do not require expert judgement.
  • They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects.
  • They use project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.
    —They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects.

Which statement is true of bottom-up estimates?

  • They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project.
  • They are also known as parametric estimating.
  • They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items.
  • They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.
    —They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.

Which statement is true of contingency reserves?

  • They allow for future situations that can be partially planned for.
  • They are also known as unknown unknowns.
  • They are not included in a cost baseline.
  • They allow for dollar amounts to be used to cover existing, fixed costs.
    ---- They allow for future situations that can be partially planned for.

Which statement is true of project management?

-It is a simple discipline with a limited scope.
-It has specific tools which work universally across all kinds of projects.
-It does not guarantee successes for all projects.
-Its framework consists solely of project management knowledge areas.
—It does not guarantee successes for all projects.

Which statement is true of tangible costs?

  • They cannot be calculated in monetary terms.
  • They can be easily measured.
  • They are difficult to quantify.
  • Their examples include goodwill and prestige.
    —They can be easily measured.

Which statement is true regarding indirect costs?

  • directly related to performing the project.
  • those that cannot be allocated to projects.
  • those that can be easily controlled by managers.
  • not directly related to the products or services of a project.
    ---- not directly related to the products or services of a project.

Which system involves a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization?

  • Seven run rule
  • ISO 9000
  • Six Sigma
  • ASQ
    —ISO 9000

Which systems development life cycle model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined?

-Spiral life cycle
-Waterfall life cycle
-Prototyping life cycle
-RAD life cycle
—Waterfall life cycle

Which task is at the lowest level of the WBS?

-variance
-objective
-deliverable
-work package
—work package

Which technique helps identify variables that have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process?

  • design of experiments
  • backward pass
  • activity-on-arrow
  • crashing
    —design of experiments

Which technique involves doing activities in parallel that one would normally do in sequence?

-Critical chain scheduling
-Crashing
-Fast tracking
-PERT analysis
—Fast tracking

Which technique involves network diagramming and is used primarily to predict total project duration?

-Gantt chart
-critical path analysis
-resource breakdown structure
-arrow diagramming method
—critical path analysis

Which technique is used for creating a WBS uses branches radiating from a core idea to structure thoughts and ideas instead of writing down tasks in a list or immediately trying to create a structure for tasks?

-analogy
-bottom-up
-top-down
-mind mapping
—mind mapping

Which technique is used for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost?

-dependency
-crashing
-critical chain scheduling
-feeding buffers
—crashing

Which term describes a product produced as part of a project?

-Variance
-Scope
-deliverable
-work package
—deliverable

Which term is used for a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer?

  • prevention cost
  • appraisal cost
  • internal failure cost
  • external failure cost
    —external failure cost

Which term is used for a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be modified, the people authorized to make modifications, and the paperwork required for these changes?

-WBS
-project charter
-performance report
-change control system
—change control system

Which term is used for a significant event on a project that normally has no duration?

-milestone
-activity attribute
-activity sequence
-schedule baseline
—milestone

Which term is used for a standard of measurement in quality management?

  • milestone
  • metric
  • merge
  • matrix
    —metric

Which term is used for the ability of a product to be used as it was intended?

  • conformance to requirements
  • fitness for use
  • critical chain scheduling
  • free slack
    —fitness for use

Which term is used for the degree to which a system performs its intended function?

  • reliability
  • validity
  • maintainability
  • functionality
    —Functionality

Which term is used when the project’s processes and products meet written specifications?

  • conformance to requirements
  • fitness for use
  • project feasibility
  • benchmarking
    —conformance to requirements

Which term refers to a product or service, such as a technical report, a training session, a piece of hardware, or a segment of software code, produced or provided as part of a project?

-Deliverable
-Input
-System
-Resource
—Deliverable

Which term refers to the difference between planned and actual performance?

-Decomposition
-Variance
-Scope validation
-Scope creep
—Variance

Which test is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible?

  • integration
  • unit
  • user acceptance
  • system
    —unit

Which testing involves an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system?

  • integration
  • unit
  • user acceptance
  • system
    —user acceptance

Which tool can best help in efficient communication management?

-Kick-off meetings
-Impact matrices
-Requests for quotes
-Fast tracking
—Kick-off meetings

Which tool is most likely to be used in project schedule management?

-Payback analysis
-Impact matrices
-Gantt charts
-Fishbone diagrams
—Gantt charts

Which type of dependencies are inherent in the nature of work being performed on a project?

-mandatory
-discretionary
-external
-random
—mandatory

Which type of estimate should be used if the cost estimate for a project is used a basis for contract awards and performance reporting?

  • budgetary
  • definitive
  • rough order of magnitude
  • analogous
    —definitive

Which type of estimate uses the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?

  • definitive estimates
  • parametric estimates
  • bottom-up estimates
  • analogous estimates
    —analogous estimates

Which type of estimating uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs?

  • rough order of magnitude estimating
  • parametric
  • bottom-up
  • analogous
    —parametric

Which type of tool is usually recommended for small projects and single users?

-Low-end
-Midrange
-High-end
-Upper range
—Low-end

Who wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects?

  • Juran
  • Ishikawa
  • Crosby
  • Deming
    —Crosby

Work performance information and cost forecasts are main outputs of which process?

  • cost budgeting
  • cost estimating
  • cost control
  • cost pricing
    —cost control
  • 1
    点赞
  • 12
    收藏
    觉得还不错? 一键收藏
  • 0
    评论
评论
添加红包

请填写红包祝福语或标题

红包个数最小为10个

红包金额最低5元

当前余额3.43前往充值 >
需支付:10.00
成就一亿技术人!
领取后你会自动成为博主和红包主的粉丝 规则
hope_wisdom
发出的红包
实付
使用余额支付
点击重新获取
扫码支付
钱包余额 0

抵扣说明:

1.余额是钱包充值的虚拟货币,按照1:1的比例进行支付金额的抵扣。
2.余额无法直接购买下载,可以购买VIP、付费专栏及课程。

余额充值