陶哲轩实分析（上）8.3及习题-Analysis I 8.3

这一节主要说不可数集合的问题。

Exericse 8.3.1

If $n=0$ then $X=\varnothing$ and the only element in $2^X$ is $\varnothing$, so the cardinality of $2^X$ is $2^0=1$.
Now suppose the statement holds for $n$, let $X$ be a finite set of cardinality $n+1$, since $n+1\ge 1,X\ne \varnothing$, so choose $x\in X$, then set X \ { x } X\backslash \{x\} X\{x} has cardinality $n$, and 2 X \ { x } 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} 2X\{x} has cardinality $2^n$. For any set S ∈ 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } S∈2^X \backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} S∈2X\2X\{x}, $S$ is a subset of $X$ which contains $x$. Thus we can see that
∀ S ′ ∈ 2 X \ { x } ⇒ S ′ ∪ { x } ∈ 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } ∀S'∈2^{X\backslash \{x\}} ⇒S'∪\{x\}∈2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} ∀S′∈2X\{x}⇒S′∪{x}∈2X\2X\{x}
And the converse is also true, thus the cardinality of 2 X \ { x } 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} 2X\{x} equals the cardinality of 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } 2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} 2X\2X\{x}, then we have 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } 2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} 2X\2X\{x} has cardinality $n$. Finally, from
2 X \ { x } ∪ 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } = 2 X 2^{X\backslash \{x\}}∪2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}}=2^X 2X\{x}∪2X\2X\{x}=2X
and
2 X \ { x } ∩ 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } = ∅ 2^{X\backslash \{x\}}\cap2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}}=∅ 2X\{x}∩2X\2X\{x}=∅
we have
# ( 2 X ) = # ( 2 X \ { x } ) + # ( 2 X \ 2 X \ { x } ) = 2 n + 2 n = 2 n + 1 \#(2^X)=\#(2^{X\backslash \{x\}} )+\#(2^X\backslash 2^{X\backslash \{x\}} )=2^n+2^n=2^{n+1} #(2X)=#(2X\{x})+#(2X\2X\{x})=2n+2n=2n+1

Exercise 8.3.2

We can see that $D_0\cap A=\varnothing ,D_i\subseteq A,\forall i\ge 1$, if we assume there’s $d\in D_n\cap D_m,m\ne n$, we can safely assume $m<n$, then
$$\exists d_{m-1}\in D_{m-1},d_{n-1}\in D_{n-1},s.t.f(d_{m-1})=f(d_{n-1})=d\Rightarrow d_{m-1}=d_{n-1}$$
So we can have
$$D_n\cap D_m\ne \varnothing \Rightarrow D_{n-1}\cap D_{m-1}\ne \varnothing$$
Continue for $m-1$ times we would get $D_{n-m}\cap D_0\ne \varnothing$, which is a contradiction.
Now if $g$ is defined as above, notice that ${\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n\subseteq A$, and if $x\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , we shall have $f^{-1}(x)\in {\bigcup }_{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n\subseteq B$, if $x\notin {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ we have $g(x)=x$. So g does map $A$ to $B$.
To prove $g$ is a bijection:
First suppose $g(a)=g(b)$, if $a,b\notin {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ we directly get $g(a)=a=b=g(b)$. If $a,b\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ we have $f^{-1}(a)=f^{-1}(b)$, thus
$f(f^{-1}(a))=f(f^{-1}(b))\Rightarrow a=b$
The case that $a\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ and $b\notin {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ is impossible, assume so, then $g(a)=f^{-1}(a)\in {\bigcup }_{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n=(B\backslash A)\cup ({\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n)$, and $g(b)=b$, so we have $b\in (B\backslash A)\cup ({\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n)$, since $b\in A$, we can’t have $b\in B\backslash A$, then $b\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , which is a contradiction. The case that $a\notin {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ and $b\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ is impossible by the same logic. So we finished proving g is an injection.
Next, let any $b\in B$, we must have one and only one of the two cases valid: $$b\in \bigcup _{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n,b\notin \bigcup _{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n$$
If $b\in {\bigcup }_{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , then let $x=f(b)\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , we have $g(x)=f^{-1}(x)=b$.
If $b\notin {\bigcup }_{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , we must have $b\in A$ since $B\backslash ({\bigcup }_{n=0}^{\infty }{D}_n)=A\backslash ({\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n)\subseteq A$, we let $x=b$, then $g(x)=x=b$. We finished proving $g$ is a surjection.

Exercise 8.3.3

Let $f:A\to B$ and $g:B\to A$ be injections, we can have $f(A)\subseteq B$ and $g(B)\subseteq A$, thus $B\subseteq g^{-1}(A)$. We can see that $f\circ g$ is an bijection from $g^{-1}(A)$ to $f(A)$. Let
$$D_0=B\backslash f(A),D_{n+1}=f(g(D_n))$$
Then the sets $D_0,D_1,D_2,\dots$ are disjoint from each other. Let $h:f(A)\to B$ be defined by setting $h(x):=g^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))$ if $x\in {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , and $h(x):=x$ if $x\notin {\bigcup }_{n=1}^{\infty }{D}_n$ , then due to Exercise 8.3.2, $h$ is a bijection, so $card(B)=card(f(A))=card(A)$.

Exercise 8.3.4

We can find an injection $f:X\to 2^X$ by f ( x ) = { x } f(x)=\{x\} f(x)={x}, thus $X$ has lesser than or equal cardinality to $2^X$, and due to Theorem 8.3.1, $X$ doesn’t have equal cardinality to $2^X$.
To prove the second statement, we can find injections $f:A\to B$ and $g:B\to C$, thus $f\circ g:A\to C$ is an injection, thus $card(A)\le card(C)$, now suppose $A$ has equal cardinality to $C$, then $card(C)=card(A)\le card(B)$, combined with $card(B)\le card(C)$ we get $card(C)=card(B)$ from Exercise 8.3.3, this is a contradiction since $B$ has strictly lesser cardinality than $C$.

Exercise 8.3.5

If $X$ is finite, then from Exercise 8.3.1 we know that $2^X$ is finite.
If $X$ is countable, then $card(X)=card(\mathbf{N})$, from Cantor’s Theorem we know that $card(2^X)>card(X)=card(\mathbf{N})$, so $2^X$ is uncountable.
If $X$ is uncountable, then $card(2^X)>card(X)>card(N)$, so $2^X$ is uncountable.